HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A client with angina pectoris has been prescribed nitroglycerin tablets prn for chest pain. Which statement by the client causes the practical nurse (PN) to clarify instructions for this client?
- A. I will take one tablet every 5 minutes, up to three tablets.
- B. I should take one tablet at the onset of angina and stop activity.
- C. I need to replace nitroglycerin tablets every 3 to 6 months to maintain freshness.
- D. I should ensure that I chew the pill completely before swallowing it.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Nitroglycerin tablets should be taken at the onset of angina, and the client should stop activity and rest. One tablet should be placed under the tongue (sublingually), not chewed or swallowed. One tablet can be taken every 5 minutes, up to three doses. If pain relief not achieved after taking three pills, seek medical attention immediately. Nitroglycerin should be replaced every 3 to 6 months. Nitroglycerin pain relief should occur in 5 minutes and duration should last 30 minutes.
2. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed carvedilol, the nurse should monitor for bradycardia, a potential side effect of this medication. Carvedilol is a beta-blocker that can slow down the heart rate, so monitoring for signs of bradycardia is essential to prevent any adverse effects on the client's cardiovascular system. Tachycardia (Choice B) is less likely to occur with carvedilol since it primarily works to reduce heart rate. Hypertension (Choice C) and hyperglycemia (Choice D) are not common side effects associated with carvedilol.
3. A client is prescribed clonidine 0.1 mg/24 hours via a transdermal patch. Which client outcome would indicate that the medication is effective?
- A. No complaints of recent episodes of angina
- B. Change in peripheral edema from +3 to +1
- C. No complaints of new onset of nausea or vomiting
- D. Blood pressure changes from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Clonidine is an antihypertensive agent that works centrally to reduce blood pressure. A significant decrease in blood pressure, such as changing from 180/120 to 140/70 mm Hg, indicates that the medication is effectively managing hypertension. Monitoring blood pressure levels is crucial in assessing the response to clonidine therapy. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not directly relate to the therapeutic effect of clonidine in managing hypertension, which is the primary goal of the medication in this scenario.
4. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?
- A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
- B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
- C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
- D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute
Correct answer: D
Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.
5. A client has metoprolol prescribed. The nurse should reinforce instructions that this medication has which potential adverse effect?
- A. Anxiety
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Sexual dysfunction
- D. Acute renal failure
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Sexual dysfunction. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to educate the client about this potential side effect. Choice A is incorrect because metoprolol can cause depression, not anxiety. Choice B is incorrect as tachycardia is not an adverse effect of metoprolol; instead, it can lead to bradycardia. Choice D is incorrect because acute renal failure is not typically associated with the use of beta-blockers.
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