Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed hydrochlorothiazide. The practical nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hyperkalemia
• B. Hypokalemia
• C. Hypernatremia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Hydrochlorothiazide is a diuretic that can lead to potassium loss, resulting in hypokalemia. Monitoring for hypokalemia is essential because it can cause various complications such as cardiac dysrhythmias. Therefore, the practical nurse should closely watch for signs and symptoms of low potassium levels in clients taking hydrochlorothiazide. Incorrect Rationale for Other Choices: A. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with hydrochlorothiazide use; instead, it is more commonly linked to medications like ACE inhibitors or potassium-sparing diuretics. C. Hypernatremia is unlikely with hydrochlorothiazide use as it tends to cause sodium loss. D. Hyponatremia is more commonly associated with conditions where there is excessive water intake or syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH), rather than with hydrochlorothiazide use.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed aripiprazole. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Headache
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Aripiprazole is known to cause weight gain in patients, so monitoring for changes in weight is essential to assess for this potential side effect and intervene accordingly.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should include which instruction in the client's teaching plan?

• A. This medication may cause drowsiness; avoid driving.
• B. This medication may take several weeks to take effect.
• C. This medication can be taken on an as-needed basis.
• D. This medication should be taken with food.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Buspirone may take several weeks to take effect, so clients should continue taking it as prescribed and not expect immediate relief.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

• A. 5-10 minutes before meals
• B. 15 minutes after meals
• C. 30 minutes before meals
• D. 1 hour after meals

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.

5. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

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