Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Bradycardia
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.

2. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. What potential adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) instruct the client to monitor for?

• A. Persistent cough
• B. Constipation
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Dry skin

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. This cough is distinctive and different from other causes of cough. It is essential for the client to be aware of this potential side effect as it can indicate a serious issue. Instructing the client to monitor for a persistent cough and report it to the healthcare provider promptly is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as constipation, increased appetite, and dry skin are not commonly associated with lisinopril use for hypertension. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on educating the client about monitoring and reporting a persistent cough.

3. A client is prescribed verapamil for hypertension. The nurse should monitor the client for which common adverse effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Headache
• C. Muscle cramping
• D. Fatigue

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker commonly used for hypertension, is known to cause constipation as a frequent adverse effect. This occurs due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract, leading to decreased motility. Headache, muscle cramping, and fatigue are not typically associated with verapamil use and are less common side effects. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for symptoms of constipation when administering verapamil.

4. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

5. A client is prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Avoid drinking alcohol
• B. Take with food to avoid gastrointestinal upset
• C. Increase fluid intake
• D. Take medication with grapefruit juice

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed diazepam for muscle spasms is to avoid drinking alcohol. Diazepam can cause drowsiness and enhance the effects of alcohol, leading to increased sedation and impaired cognitive function. Clients should be advised to avoid alcohol consumption while taking diazepam to prevent these adverse effects and ensure their safety.

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