a client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine the nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect
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HESI Pharmacology Exam Test Bank

1. A client with a history of hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is a calcium channel blocker commonly associated with causing peripheral edema as an adverse effect. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of swelling, particularly in the lower extremities, as it may indicate a need for dosage adjustment or further evaluation. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as amlodipine is not known to cause tachycardia, bradycardia, or increased appetite as adverse effects.

2. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.

3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 1 is prescribed insulin lispro. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered 5-10 minutes before meals. This timing helps synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing postprandial hyperglycemia. Choice B, administering 15 minutes after meals, is incorrect because rapid-acting insulins like lispro are meant to act quickly to cover the rise in blood glucose levels after meals. Choices C and D are also incorrect as they do not align with the rapid onset of action required to manage postprandial hyperglycemia in patients with diabetes mellitus type 1.

4. What is important information to provide to a young adult female client planning to become pregnant?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is crucial to advise the client to discontinue medication one month before planning to become pregnant to prevent potential harm to the fetus. This precaution is essential as certain medications can have adverse effects on the developing baby. By stopping the medication ahead of time, the client can reduce the risk of any complications during pregnancy.

5. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed venlafaxine. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Nausea. Venlafaxine, a medication used for generalized anxiety disorder, can commonly cause nausea as a side effect. It is essential for clients to be aware of this potential side effect and advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, insomnia, and headache are less commonly associated side effects of venlafaxine compared to nausea.

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