Nursing Elites

1. In the emergency department, a child is admitted for accidental ingestion of a poison. The practical nurse (PN) should know that inducing vomiting is recommended for which child?

• A. An 8-month-old who ingested four to six ibuprofen tablets
• B. A 3-year-old who drank an unknown amount of charcoal lighter fluid
• C. A 16-month-old who ingested 2 ounces of acetaminophen elixir
• D. A 2-year-old who ate a handful of automatic dishwasher detergent

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Inducing emesis is recommended for the child who ingested a large dose of acetaminophen elixir because this medication is hepatotoxic. Acetaminophen overdose can lead to severe liver damage, and prompt removal from the stomach can help reduce absorption and potential harm.

2. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed carbamazepine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Agranulocytosis
• B. Hair loss
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Carbamazepine is associated with the potential adverse effect of agranulocytosis, a serious condition characterized by a low white blood cell count. Monitoring white blood cell counts regularly is crucial to detect this adverse effect early and prevent complications.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed amiodarone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Pulmonary toxicity
• B. Liver toxicity
• C. Thyroid dysfunction
• D. Bradycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amiodarone is known to cause pulmonary toxicity, which can manifest as respiratory symptoms. Monitoring for signs such as cough, dyspnea, or chest pain is essential to detect this serious side effect early and prevent further complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while amiodarone can also cause liver toxicity, thyroid dysfunction, and bradycardia, pulmonary toxicity is the most serious side effect that requires immediate attention due to its potential life-threatening consequences.

4. A client has a prescription for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Several pre-filled syringes of low molecular weight heparin are available in the client's medication drawer. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Dilute the available heparin in 250ml of normal saline solution prior to IV administration
• B. Advise the pharmacy on the need to deliver a vial of heparin to the nursing unit immediately
• C. Calculate and administer the equivalent dose of the available low molecular weight heparin
• D. Request a prescription to change the route of administration and use the available heparin

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should contact the pharmacy to obtain the correct heparin formulation as the prescription calls for heparin 1,000 units IV STAT. Low molecular weight heparin is not the same as unfractionated heparin, and therefore, the nurse should not administer the available low molecular weight heparin without first obtaining the correct medication. Diluting the available heparin, calculating an equivalent dose, or changing the route of administration would not address the discrepancy between the prescribed heparin and the available low molecular weight heparin.

5. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed tiotropium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Blurred vision
• C. Nausea
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dry mouth. Tiotropium, a commonly prescribed medication for COPD, can cause dry mouth as a side effect. While it may not be severe, clients should report it if it becomes bothersome. Dry mouth is a common side effect of tiotropium due to its anticholinergic properties. Blurred vision, nausea, and tachycardia are not typically associated with tiotropium use in the context of COPD.

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