Nursing Elites

1. A client with osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate. The practical nurse (PN) should reinforce which instruction regarding the administration of this medication?

• A. Take the medication with a full glass of water before breakfast.
• B. Take the medication immediately after a meal.
• C. Lie down for 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Crush the medication and mix it with food.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for administering alendronate is to take the medication with a full glass of water before breakfast. This timing is crucial to ensure proper absorption in the body and reduce the risk of esophageal irritation. Taking it immediately after a meal or lying down for 30 minutes after may affect absorption and increase the risk of adverse effects. It should not be crushed or mixed with food to maintain its effectiveness.

2. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Nausea
• D. Hyperphosphatemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed ferric citrate, the nurse should monitor for constipation as a potential side effect. Ferric citrate can lead to constipation due to its effects on the gastrointestinal system, causing a decrease in bowel movements. It is essential for the nurse to assess and manage constipation promptly to prevent complications and ensure the client's comfort and well-being. Monitoring bowel movements, providing adequate hydration, and recommending dietary interventions can help alleviate constipation in clients taking ferric citrate. Diarrhea, nausea, and hyperphosphatemia are not typically associated with the use of ferric citrate in clients with chronic kidney disease.

3. Which assessment finding requires nursing intervention prior to the administration of medication?

• A. Apical pulse heard best at the pulmonic site
• B. Irregular apical pulse rhythm
• C. Presence of a systolic heart murmur
• D. Apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute

Correct answer: D

Rationale: An apical pulse rate of 50 beats/minute indicates bradycardia, a heart rate below the normal range, which requires immediate nursing intervention before administering medication to address the potential impact of the bradycardia on the patient's overall condition.

4. What should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine for a male client with bipolar disorder?

• A. Complete blood count
• B. Family history of hypertension
• C. History of erectile dysfunction
• D. Baseline weight

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Baseline weight should be obtained prior to starting olanzapine in a male client with bipolar disorder to monitor for potential weight gain associated with the medication. Olanzapine is known to cause weight gain and monitoring the baseline weight can help in assessing any changes during treatment.

5. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of potential bleeding?

• A. Elevated blood pressure
• B. Bruising
• C. Shortness of breath
• D. Nausea and vomiting

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Warfarin is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Bruising is a common sign of potential bleeding in clients taking warfarin. Monitoring for bruising is essential as it can indicate a risk of bleeding that needs further assessment and management. Elevated blood pressure, shortness of breath, nausea, and vomiting are not direct signs of potential bleeding associated with warfarin therapy.

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