a client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin cipro the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

2. Which of the following activities is an example of tertiary prevention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D, physical therapy. Tertiary prevention focuses on rehabilitation and treatment to prevent complications from a disease or injury. Physical therapy falls under this category as it helps individuals recover and improve functionality after an illness or injury. Choices A, B, and C are not examples of tertiary prevention. Health education (choice A) is more aligned with primary prevention by promoting healthy behaviors to prevent disease onset. Regular exercise (choice B) can be categorized under both primary and secondary prevention as it aims to prevent disease development and detect conditions early. Screening tests (choice C) are part of secondary prevention as they aim to detect diseases at an early stage for prompt treatment.

3. In combating myths and misconceptions about family planning in the community, what should you do first as a health educator?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is to identify myths and misconceptions prevailing in the community and their sources. This is the initial step in addressing misconceptions effectively. By understanding the specific myths and where they originate from, a health educator can tailor their approach to correct these misconceptions. Choice A is incorrect because while influential leaders can play a role, identifying myths comes first. Choice B is incorrect as selecting an approach should come after understanding the myths. Choice C is incorrect as deciding who will be involved in a conference is not the primary step in combating myths and misconceptions.

4. A 67-year-old client is admitted with substernal chest pain with radiation to the jaw. His admitting diagnosis is Acute Myocardial Infarction (MI). The priority nursing diagnosis for this client during the immediate 24 hours is

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Impaired gas exchange. In a client with an acute myocardial infarction, impaired gas exchange is a priority nursing diagnosis due to compromised heart function, which affects oxygenated blood circulation. Close monitoring and interventions are crucial to ensure adequate oxygenation. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect: A) Constipation related to immobility is not the priority in this acute situation; B) High risk for infection is not the immediate concern related to the client's primary diagnosis; D) Fluid volume deficit, while important, is not the priority compared to addressing impaired gas exchange in acute MI.

5. When assessing a newborn infant with low set ears, short palpebral fissures, flat nasal bridge, and an indistinct philtrum, a priority maternal assessment by the nurse should be to ask about

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Alcohol use during pregnancy. The physical features mentioned are indicative of fetal alcohol syndrome, a condition caused by maternal alcohol consumption during pregnancy. It is crucial for the nurse to inquire about alcohol use as it can help in diagnosing and managing the infant's condition. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they are not directly associated with the physical findings described in the newborn, which specifically point towards a potential history of alcohol exposure during pregnancy.

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