Nursing Elites

1. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Tendonitis

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

2. A nurse manager is using the technique of brainstorming to help solve a problem. One nurse criticizes another nurse’s contribution and begins to find objections to the suggestion. The nurse manager's best response is to

• A. Let’s move on to a new action that deals with the problem.
• B. I think you need to reserve judgment until after all suggestions are offered.
• C. Very well thought out. Your analytic skills and interest are incredible.
• D. Let’s move to the ‘what if…’ as related to these objections for an exploration of spin-off ideas.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Encouraging the group to explore 'what if' scenarios based on the objections helps to maintain a positive and creative brainstorming atmosphere, while also validating the concerns raised by the nurse. Choice A is dismissive and does not address the issue at hand. Choice B suggests postponing judgment, which may not resolve the tension caused by the criticism. Choice C is complimentary but does not address the critical feedback provided by the nurse, missing an opportunity to turn objections into opportunities for further exploration.

3. A client with a peptic ulcer is scheduled for a vagotomy and pyloroplasty. The nurse explains that the purpose of this surgery is to:

• A. Increase acid secretion
• B. Reduce acid secretion
• C. Promote gastric emptying
• D. Remove the ulcerated area

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: "Reduce acid secretion." Vagotomy is performed to reduce acid secretion by cutting the vagus nerve, which stimulates acid production. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect. A vagotomy does not increase acid secretion, promote gastric emptying, or remove the ulcerated area. It specifically aims to decrease acid production to help in the healing of peptic ulcers.

4. What does the term 'social determinants of health' refer to?

• A. Genetic predispositions
• B. Lifestyle choices
• C. Conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age
• D. Access to medical care

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The term 'social determinants of health' refers to the conditions in which people are born, grow, live, work, and age. This includes factors like socioeconomic status, education, physical environment, employment, and social support networks. These factors have a significant impact on health outcomes. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because genetic predispositions, lifestyle choices, and access to medical care, although important, are not encompassed by the term 'social determinants of health.'

5. The nurse is discussing dietary intake with an adolescent who has acne. The most appropriate statement for the nurse is:

• A. Eat a balanced diet for your age.
• B. Increase your intake of protein and Vitamin A.
• C. Decrease fatty foods from your diet.
• D. Do not use caffeine in any form, including chocolate.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most appropriate advice for an adolescent with acne is to eat a balanced diet for their age. A balanced diet that includes a variety of nutrients is essential for overall health, including skin health. While protein and Vitamin A are important for skin health, focusing solely on increasing these nutrients may not address the overall dietary needs. Similarly, solely decreasing fatty foods or avoiding caffeine may not be the most effective advice for managing acne. Therefore, the best advice is to promote a balanced diet tailored to the adolescent's age.

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