a client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin cipro the nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Practice Exam

1. A client with a urinary tract infection is receiving ciprofloxacin (Cipro). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Ciprofloxacin can cause tendonitis and an increased risk of tendon rupture. Monitoring for tendonitis is crucial as it can lead to significant musculoskeletal issues. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as hypertension, hypoglycemia, and hyperkalemia are not typically associated with ciprofloxacin use.

2. Which of the following is used to monitor specific groups eligible for a particular DOH program?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Target Client list. The Target Client list is specifically designed to monitor groups that are eligible for a particular DOH program. It helps in identifying and tracking individuals or populations that qualify for the said program. Choice A, Family treatment record, is incorrect because it pertains to the medical history and treatment information of a particular family, not eligibility monitoring. Choice C, Reporting forms, is incorrect as they are used for documenting and submitting information, not for monitoring eligibility. Choice D, Output record, is also incorrect as it refers to the results or outcomes produced by a system, not for monitoring eligibility.

3. An example of secondary prevention strategy would be:

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Screening for breast cancer is a secondary prevention strategy aimed at early detection, which falls under secondary prevention as it focuses on early identification and intervention before the disease progresses. Choice B is incorrect as it refers to palliative care for symptom management in terminal cancer patients, which is not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice C is incorrect as educating teenagers about condom use is a primary prevention strategy to prevent the initial occurrence of STDs rather than intervening after exposure, making it a primary, not a secondary prevention strategy. Choice D is incorrect as there is a valid example of a secondary prevention strategy provided in choice A.

4. A school nurse is assessing a child who has frequent absences from school due to asthma. Which of the following is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the child's asthma management plan. This is the priority action as it allows the nurse to evaluate the current treatment regimen, identify any gaps or areas for improvement, and ensure that the plan is being effectively implemented. Teaching the child how to use an inhaler (Choice A) may be important but should come after assessing the management plan. Discussing the importance of school attendance with the parents (Choice C) is secondary to ensuring proper asthma management. Referring the child to a pulmonologist (Choice D) may be necessary but is not the priority at this stage; first, the nurse needs to evaluate the current plan in place.

5. The client with atrial fibrillation is being taught about the use of Coumadin (warfarin) at home. Which of these should be emphasized to the client to avoid?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Foods rich in vitamin K. Foods rich in vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) by promoting blood clotting. It is crucial for clients on this medication to maintain a consistent intake of vitamin K and avoid sudden dietary changes. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they are not directly related to the interaction of Coumadin (warfarin) with vitamin K. Large indoor gatherings, exposure to sunlight, and active physical exercise do not have a significant impact on the effectiveness of Coumadin (warfarin) in comparison to the interaction with foods rich in vitamin K.

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