a child is diagnosed with poison ivy the mother tells the nurse that she does not know how her child contracted the rash since he had not been playing
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Study Guide

1. A child is diagnosed with poison ivy. The mother tells the nurse that she does not know how her child contracted the rash since he had not been playing in wooded areas. As the nurse asks questions about possible contact, which of the following would the nurse recognize as highest risk for exposure?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Poison ivy can be contracted through smoke from burning plants, which can carry the urushiol oil that causes the rash. Playing near burning leaves would be the highest risk for exposure in this scenario. Choices A, B, and D do not involve direct contact with burning plants or leaves, making them lower-risk activities for exposure to poison ivy.

2. An infant has just returned from surgery for placement of a gastrostomy tube as an initial treatment for tracheoesophageal fistula. The mother asks, 'When can the tube be used for feeding?' The nurse's best response would be which of these comments?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'The stomach contents and air must be drained first.' Before starting feedings through a gastrostomy tube, it is essential to drain the stomach contents and air. This process helps prevent complications and ensures the proper functioning of the tube after placement. Choice A is incorrect because initiating feedings within 5 to 7 days may lead to complications if the stomach is not adequately prepared. Choice B is incorrect as feeding should not begin immediately to allow for proper preparation of the tube and the stomach. Choice D is incorrect because although incision healing is important, draining the stomach contents and air is a more immediate concern to prevent complications.

3. Which of the following statements can motivate a couple to practice family planning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because all the listed statements provide valid reasons to motivate couples to practice family planning. Option A highlights how family planning can lead to an improvement in the standard of living by allowing families to better manage their resources. Option B emphasizes the importance of family planning in reducing or eliminating the fear of unwanted pregnancies, which can have significant emotional and financial implications for couples. Option C points out that family planning can also afford family members time to focus on personal development, such as studying or pursuing personal interests, without the added responsibilities of unplanned pregnancies. Therefore, all these factors combined can serve as strong motivators for couples to consider and practice family planning. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because each of them individually provides a valid reason to motivate couples, making the comprehensive answer D the most appropriate.

4. A community health nurse is developing a program to decrease the incidence of Type 2 diabetes in the community. Which of the following interventions should be included?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: conducting exercise classes at the community center. Regular physical activity plays a crucial role in preventing Type 2 diabetes by helping to maintain a healthy weight, improve insulin sensitivity, and regulate blood sugar levels. Distributing brochures (choice A) may raise awareness but might not lead to significant behavior change. Providing free glucose monitors (choice C) focuses on monitoring rather than prevention. Offering dietary counseling sessions (choice D) is important but focusing solely on diet may not address the comprehensive approach needed to prevent Type 2 diabetes.

5. While assessing an Rh-positive newborn whose mother is Rh-negative, the nurse recognizes the risk for hyperbilirubinemia. Which of the following should be reported immediately?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A serum bilirubin level of 12 mg/dL in a newborn is concerning and can indicate a significant risk of hyperbilirubinemia, which requires immediate medical intervention to prevent complications like kernicterus. Jaundice at 26 hours (Choice A) is a symptom, not a laboratory result, and needs monitoring but not an immediate report. Hematocrit of 55% (Choice B) may be elevated but is not indicative of hyperbilirubinemia. A positive Coombs test (Choice D) indicates the presence of antibodies on the newborn's red blood cells but does not directly correlate with the risk of hyperbilirubinemia.

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