a client was re admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture which finding requires the nurses immediate attention
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Community Health HESI Exam

1. A client was re-admitted to the hospital following a recent skull fracture. Which finding requires the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Lethargy is a critical finding that requires the nurse's immediate attention when a client with a recent skull fracture is readmitted to the hospital. It can indicate increased intracranial pressure or other serious complications such as hemorrhage or infection. Addressing lethargy promptly is crucial to prevent further deterioration. Agitation, ataxia, and hearing loss are important to assess but do not signify the same level of urgency as lethargy in this context.

2. A community hospital is an example of which level of health care?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A community hospital is categorized under secondary level health care. Secondary level health care facilities, like community hospitals, provide specialized outpatient care, diagnostic services, and treatment that are more complex than what is offered in primary health care settings. Choice B, primary health care, refers to basic and routine health care services typically provided by family doctors or general practitioners, which is not the level of care provided by community hospitals. Tertiary level care (choice C) involves highly specialized and complex medical services such as neurosurgery or organ transplants, which are beyond the scope of services provided by community hospitals. Intermediate level care (choice D) is not a recognized category in the hierarchy of health care levels.

3. A client is admitted for COPD. Which finding would require the nurse's immediate attention?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restlessness and confusion are signs of hypoxia and hypercapnia in a client with COPD, indicating that the client's condition may be deteriorating rapidly. Immediate attention is necessary to prevent further complications. Nausea and vomiting (Choice A) may be related to various factors but do not directly indicate respiratory distress. Low-grade fever and cough (Choice C) are common in COPD and may not require immediate intervention. Irritating cough and liquefied sputum (Choice D) are typical symptoms of COPD exacerbation but do not signal an immediate need for attention as restlessness and confusion.

4. The nurse is planning care for a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Which of the following would be most effective in removing respiratory secretions?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Increasing oral fluid intake to 3000 cc per day is the most effective in removing respiratory secretions in a client with pneumococcal pneumonia. Adequate hydration helps thin secretions, making them easier to expectorate. Administration of cough suppressants (Choice A) may hinder the removal of secretions by suppressing the cough reflex. Maintaining bed rest with bathroom privileges (Choice C) is important but does not directly address the removal of respiratory secretions. Performing chest physiotherapy (Choice D) is beneficial for mobilizing secretions but may not be as effective as increasing fluid intake in thinning and facilitating the removal of secretions.

5. The client with Raynaud's phenomenon would benefit most by which teaching intervention?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Stop smoking. Smoking causes vasoconstriction, worsening the symptoms of Raynaud's phenomenon. Quitting smoking is crucial in managing this condition effectively. Choices B, C, and D are not as directly related to the pathophysiology of Raynaud's phenomenon. While keeping feet dry and reducing stress can be beneficial for overall health, they are not as directly linked to managing Raynaud's phenomenon as smoking cessation.

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