HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A client with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus is being taught how to administer insulin. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?
- A. Administer the insulin in the same body area each time.
- B. Store the insulin according to the manufacturer's instructions.
- C. Rotate injection sites within the same body area.
- D. Inject the insulin at a 45-degree angle.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct instruction the nurse should include is to rotate injection sites within the same body area. This practice helps prevent lipodystrophy, a condition characterized by the thickening or thinning of subcutaneous fat at the injection sites, which can affect insulin absorption. Choice A is incorrect because administering insulin in the same area each time can lead to lipodystrophy. Choice B is incorrect as insulin should be stored according to the manufacturer's instructions, which may include refrigeration. Choice D is incorrect because the angle of insulin injection (usually 90 degrees) is determined by the length of the needle and the amount of subcutaneous fat, not a fixed 45-degree angle.
2. A client begins taking an antidepressant drug during the second day of hospitalization. Which assessment is most important for the nurse to include in this client's plan of care while the client is taking the antidepressant?
- A. Appetite
- B. Mood
- C. Withdrawal
- D. Energy level
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Monitoring the client's mood is essential when starting an antidepressant to assess for any changes or adverse effects related to the medication. Changes in mood can indicate the effectiveness of the antidepressant or potential side effects. Assessing appetite (Choice A) is important but not as crucial as monitoring mood in this context. Withdrawal symptoms (Choice C) are more relevant when discontinuing antidepressants rather than starting them. Energy level (Choice D) can be influenced by various factors and may not directly reflect the client's response to the antidepressant.
3. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?
- A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
- B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
- C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
- D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.
4. The nurse is planning care for a 12-year-old child with sickle cell disease in a vaso-occlusive crisis affecting the elbow. Which one of the following should be the priority?
- A. Limiting fluids
- B. Client-controlled analgesia
- C. Applying cold compresses to the elbow
- D. Performing passive range of motion exercises
Correct answer: B
Rationale: During a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell disease, the priority intervention is effective pain management. Client-controlled analgesia allows the child to self-administer pain relief as needed, promoting comfort and reducing stress. Limiting fluids (choice A) is not appropriate in this scenario as hydration is essential to prevent complications. Cold compresses (choice C) may provide some comfort but do not address the underlying pain. Passive range of motion exercises (choice D) are contraindicated during a vaso-occlusive crisis due to the risk of further pain and tissue damage.
5. A client has a new prescription for parenteral nutrition (PN) in 20% dextrose and fat emulsions. Which of the following is an appropriate action to include in the plan of care?
- A. Monitor blood glucose levels daily.
- B. Change the PN infusion bag every 24 hours.
- C. Prepare the client for a central venous line.
- D. Administer the PN and fat emulsion together.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: When a client requires parenteral nutrition (PN) with a high dextrose concentration, such as 20%, it typically has a high osmolarity. High osmolarity solutions should be infused through a central venous line to prevent peripheral vein irritation and potential complications. Therefore, preparing the client for a central venous line is essential for the safe administration of PN with high dextrose. Monitoring blood glucose levels daily is important but not directly related to the need for a central venous line. Changing the PN infusion bag every 24 hours helps prevent bacterial contamination, but it is not the most critical action in this scenario. Administering the PN and fat emulsion together or separately is a matter of compatibility and administration guidelines, but it is not the key concern in this situation.