HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test for Fundamentals
1. The pediatric clinic nurse examines a toddler with a tentative diagnosis of neuroblastoma. Findings observed by the nurse that are associated with this problem include which of these?
- A. Lymphedema and nerve palsy
- B. Hearing loss and ataxia
- C. Headaches and vomiting
- D. Abdominal mass and weakness
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Neuroblastoma, a common solid tumor in children, often presents with symptoms related to the mass effect it causes. Abdominal mass and weakness are classic signs of neuroblastoma due to the tumor originating in the adrenal glands near the kidneys and potentially compressing nearby structures. Lymphedema and nerve palsy (Choice A) are not typically associated with neuroblastoma. Hearing loss and ataxia (Choice B) are more common in conditions affecting the central nervous system rather than neuroblastoma. Headaches and vomiting (Choice C) are nonspecific symptoms and are less commonly linked to neuroblastoma compared to the characteristic abdominal findings.
2. The nurse is admitting a patient diagnosed with a stroke. The healthcare provider writes orders for 'ROM as needed.' What should the nurse do next?
- A. Restrict the patient's mobility as much as possible.
- B. Realize the patient is unable to move extremities.
- C. Move all the patient's extremities.
- D. Further assess the patient.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is to further assess the patient. 'ROM as needed' stands for Range of Motion, indicating that the patient should have their limbs moved to maintain joint flexibility and muscle strength. Before initiating any movements, it is crucial to assess the patient's current condition to determine their abilities and limitations. Restricting mobility (choice A) is not appropriate as it contradicts the purpose of ROM exercises. Realizing the patient is unable to move extremities (choice B) assumes without assessment and can lead to inappropriate care. Moving all the patient's extremities (choice C) without assessing the patient first can be harmful, as it may cause pain or injury if done incorrectly. Therefore, further assessment is necessary to provide safe and effective care.
3. An 18-year-old client is admitted to the intensive care unit from the emergency room following a diving accident. The injury is suspected to be at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra. The nurse's priority assessment should be
- A. Response to stimuli
- B. Bladder control
- C. Respiratory function
- D. Muscle strength
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Injuries at the level of the 2nd cervical vertebra can affect the phrenic nerve, leading to potential impairment of respiratory function. Assessing respiratory function is crucial as compromised breathing can quickly escalate to life-threatening situations. While response to stimuli is important, ensuring adequate oxygenation takes precedence due to the immediate threat to life. Bladder control may be affected by spinal cord injuries at higher levels, but it is not the priority in this scenario. Muscle strength is a potential consequence of cervical spinal cord injury, but assessing respiratory function is more critical in the acute phase.
4. A healthcare professional is collecting data to evaluate a middle adult's psychosocial development. The healthcare professional should expect middle adults to demonstrate which of the following developmental tasks? (Select ONE that does not apply.)
- A. Develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others.
- B. Spend time focusing on improving job performance.
- C. Welcome opportunities to be creative and productive.
- D. Commit to finding friendship and companionship.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals typically focus on various developmental tasks. Option A is incorrect as middle adults do not necessarily develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others; they often strive to maintain independence. Option B is correct as middle adults are usually focused on improving job performance and advancing their careers. Option C is correct as middle adults tend to welcome opportunities to be creative and productive, engaging in new hobbies or projects. Option D is correct as middle adults often commit to finding friendship and companionship as they value social connections and support networks. Therefore, options B, C, and D are the expected developmental tasks for middle adults, making them the correct choices.
5. When preparing for a change of shift, which document or tools should a healthcare provider use to communicate?
- A. SBAR
- B. SOAP
- C. PIE
- D. DAR
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: SBAR (Situation, Background, Assessment, Recommendation) is a structured method for communicating information during shift changes. SBAR provides a clear and concise way for healthcare providers to communicate important details about a patient's condition, ensuring that essential information is effectively transferred between providers. Choice B, SOAP (Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan), is a method primarily used for documentation in patient charts, not for shift change communication. Choice C, PIE (Problem, Intervention, Evaluation), is a nursing process format for organizing nursing care that focuses on individualized patient care plans, not shift handoff communication. Choice D, DAR (Data, Action, Response), is not a standard format for provider-to-provider handoff communication and is less commonly used in healthcare settings compared to SBAR.
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