Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider is providing postoperative care to a client who had a submucosal resection (SMR) for a deviated septum. The healthcare provider should monitor for what complication associated with this type of surgery?

• A. Occipital headache
• B. Periorbital crepitus
• C. Expectoration of blood
• D. Changes in vocalization

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Expectoration of blood is a potential complication following SMR surgery, as it may indicate bleeding postoperatively. In contrast, occipital headache (choice A) is not a common complication associated with SMR surgery. Periorbital crepitus (choice B) is more related to facial fractures or certain infections rather than SMR surgery. Changes in vocalization (choice D) are not typically associated with complications following SMR surgery.

2. During an assessment, a nurse is evaluating the breath sounds of an adult client diagnosed with pneumonia. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest.
• B. Ask the client to breathe in deeply through their nose.
• C. Instruct the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward.
• D. Place the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When assessing breath sounds in a client with pneumonia, the nurse should follow a systematic pattern from side-to-side moving down the client’s chest. This approach ensures a comprehensive evaluation of breath sounds across different lung fields. Asking the client to breathe in deeply through their nose (Choice B) is not necessary for assessing breath sounds. Instructing the client to sit upright with their head slightly tilted backward (Choice C) is not directly related to assessing breath sounds and may not be required. Placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope on the client’s chest (Choice D) is not the correct technique for auscultating breath sounds, as the diaphragm should be used for this purpose.

3. A nurse at a health department is planning strategies related to heart disease. Which of the following activities should the nurse include as part of primary prevention?

• A. Providing cholesterol screening
• B. Teaching about a healthy diet
• C. Providing information about antihypertensive medications
• D. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Teaching about a healthy diet is considered a primary prevention activity. Primary prevention aims to prevent the onset of a disease or health problem. Educating individuals on healthy lifestyle choices, such as diet modification, falls under primary prevention. Providing cholesterol screening (choice A) is a secondary prevention measure aimed at early detection. Offering information about antihypertensive medications (choice C) falls under secondary prevention, focusing on controlling risk factors. Developing a list of cardiac rehabilitation programs (choice D) is part of tertiary prevention, focusing on rehabilitation and improving outcomes post-disease onset.

4. A healthcare professional is planning to obtain the vital signs of a 2-year-old child who is experiencing diarrhea and who might have a right ear infection. Which of the following routes should the healthcare professional use to obtain the temperature?

• A. Temporal
• B. Oral
• C. Rectal
• D. Axillary

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In a 2-year-old child with diarrhea and a possible ear infection, rectal temperature measurement is the most accurate reflection of core body temperature. This method provides the most reliable reading, especially in young children, as it closely reflects the core body temperature. Oral temperature may not be accurate due to the child's recent diarrhea, which can affect oral readings. Axillary temperature may not be as accurate as rectal temperature in this case. Temporal temperature measurement, although non-invasive, may not provide the most accurate core body temperature reading, especially in a child with a potential ear infection.

5. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a history of congestive heart failure. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Shortness of breath on exertion
• B. Weight gain of 2 pounds in a week
• C. Orthopnea
• D. Crackles in the lungs

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Crackles in the lungs are concerning because they indicate pulmonary congestion, a serious complication of congestive heart failure. The presence of crackles suggests fluid accumulation in the lungs, requiring immediate attention to prevent respiratory distress and worsening heart failure. While shortness of breath on exertion, weight gain, and orthopnea are common signs and symptoms of heart failure, crackles specifically point to acute pulmonary edema or worsening congestion, making them the most concerning finding in this scenario.

Similar Questions