HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Practice Questions
1. When admitting a client to an acute care facility, an identification bracelet is sent up with the admission form. In the event these do not match, the nurse's best action is to
- A. Change whichever item is incorrect to the correct information
- B. Use the bracelet and admission form until a replacement is supplied
- C. Notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet
- D. Make a corrected identification bracelet for the client
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should notify the admissions office and wait to apply the bracelet. By doing so, the nurse ensures patient safety and accuracy in identification. Changing the incorrect item (Choice A) could lead to errors and confusion in the patient's identification. Using the mismatched items until a replacement is supplied (Choice B) compromises patient safety and could result in errors during care delivery. Making a corrected identification bracelet without verifying the correct information (Choice D) could introduce further inaccuracies and risks in patient identification.
2. From January 1 to 15, 1996, there were 8 cases of Tetanus neonatorum in San Lazaro Hospital. There were two deaths. What is the case fatality ratio of this disease?
- A. 20%
- B. 30%
- C. 28%
- D. 25%
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The case fatality ratio is calculated as (deaths/cases) * 100. In this case, there were 2 deaths out of 8 cases. Therefore, the calculation is (2/8) * 100 = 25%. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect as they do not match the correct calculation.
3. The nurse is caring for an acutely ill 10-year-old client. Which of the following assessments would require the nurse's immediate attention?
- A. Rapid bounding pulse
- B. Temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius
- C. Profuse diaphoresis
- D. Slow, irregular respirations
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, slow, irregular respirations. In an acutely ill child, this assessment can indicate impending respiratory failure or neurological compromise, necessitating immediate intervention. Rapid bounding pulse (choice A) may indicate tachycardia but is not as immediately concerning as compromised respirations. A temperature of 38.5 degrees Celsius (choice B) is elevated but may not be the most urgent concern unless accompanied by other symptoms. Profuse diaphoresis (choice C) can indicate increased sympathetic activity but is not as critical as respiratory compromise.
4. A client who is 28 weeks pregnant and not up-to-date on current immunizations should anticipate receiving which of the following immunizations following birth?
- A. Pneumococcal
- B. Hepatitis
- C. Human papillomavirus
- D. Rubella
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Rubella. Rubella vaccine is recommended postpartum to prevent congenital rubella syndrome in future pregnancies. Pneumococcal and Hepatitis vaccines are not routinely given postpartum. Human papillomavirus vaccine is not typically administered immediately after birth but rather at a later age to prevent HPV infections.
5. Which atrioventricular heart block is also referred to as Mobitz II?
- A. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block
- B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block
- C. First-degree atrioventricular heart block
- D. Complete heart block
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Second-degree atrioventricular heart block is also known as Mobitz II. In Mobitz II, some atrial impulses are blocked from reaching the ventricles, resulting in occasional dropped beats. Third-degree atrioventricular heart block is known as complete heart block, where no atrial impulses reach the ventricles. First-degree atrioventricular heart block is a condition where there is delayed conduction between the atria and ventricles but all atrial impulses are eventually conducted to the ventricles.