a client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin dilantin which statement should the lpnlvn include when teaching the client about this med
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Fundamentals of Nursing HESI

1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

2. During a skin assessment, a healthcare professional is observing a group of clients. Which of the following lesions should the healthcare professional identify as vesicles?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Vesicles are small fluid-filled blisters. Herpes simplex is an example of a vesicular lesion, characterized by small, fluid-filled blisters. Acne presents as comedones, papules, pustules, or nodules, not vesicles. Warts are caused by the human papillomavirus and appear as rough, raised growths. Psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition that results in red, scaly patches on the skin, not vesicles.

3. A client has restraints on each extremity. Which of the following assessments should the nurse perform first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is restrained, the nurse should prioritize assessing peripheral pulses first. This assessment is crucial to monitor circulation and ensure the restraints are not impeding blood flow. Comfort level, elimination needs, and skin integrity are also important assessments; however, assessing peripheral pulses takes precedence to prevent complications such as impaired circulation and tissue damage. By assessing peripheral pulses initially, the nurse can promptly identify and address any circulation issues, which are critical in preventing serious complications.

4. While changing a client's postoperative dressing, the nurse observes a red and swollen wound with a moderate amount of yellow and green drainage and a foul odor. Given there is a positive MRSA, which is the most important action for the nurse to take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take in this situation is to initiate contact precautions. MRSA (Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus) is a highly contagious bacterium that spreads through direct contact. Contact precautions involve wearing gloves and gowns to prevent the spread of infection to other patients or healthcare workers. Force-feeding oral fluids, requesting a nutrition consult, or limiting visitors to immediate family only are not the most appropriate actions in this scenario. These actions do not directly address the need to prevent the spread of MRSA, which is crucial in a healthcare setting.

5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

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