Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of seizures is prescribed phenytoin (Dilantin). Which statement should the LPN/LVN include when teaching the client about this medication?

• A. Do not take the medication with milk to avoid reduced absorption.
• B. Brush and floss your teeth regularly to prevent gum disease.
• C. Avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of the medication.
• D. Report any unusual bleeding or bruising to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to avoid taking antacids within 2 hours of phenytoin. Antacids can interfere with the absorption of phenytoin, reducing its effectiveness. Choice A is incorrect because phenytoin should not be taken with milk, as it may decrease its absorption. Choice B is unrelated to the medication and focuses on dental hygiene. Choice D is important but not directly related to phenytoin; it is more relevant to monitoring for adverse effects of the medication.

2. When teaching the guardian of a 12-year-old male client about manifestations of puberty, which of the following physical changes typically occurs first?

• A. Appearance of downy hair on the upper lip
• B. Hair growth in the axillae
• C. Enlargement of the testes and scrotum
• D. Deepening of the voice

Correct answer: C

Rationale: During puberty in males, the first physical change that typically occurs is the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. This change is due to increased production of testosterone, which stimulates growth and development of the genital organs. The appearance of downy hair on the upper lip (Choice A) and hair growth in the axillae (Choice B) usually follow the enlargement of the testes and scrotum. Deepening of the voice (Choice D) is a later stage change that occurs during puberty as the larynx (voice box) grows and the vocal cords lengthen and thicken.

3. A nurse discovers a small paper fire in a trash can in a client’s bathroom. The client has been taken to safety and the alarm has been activated. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

• A. Open the windows in the client’s room to allow smoke to escape.
• B. Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire.
• C. Remove all electrical equipment from the client’s room.
• D. Place wet towels along the base of the door to the client’s room.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Obtain a class C fire extinguisher to extinguish the fire. Using a class C fire extinguisher is appropriate for electrical fires, which can include fires involving electrical equipment or appliances. In this scenario, a paper fire in a trash can in the client's bathroom could potentially involve electrical components, making a class C fire extinguisher the most suitable choice. Option A, opening the windows, may help with ventilation but does not address the fire directly. Option C, removing electrical equipment, is a precautionary measure but does not address the immediate fire hazard. Option D, placing wet towels along the base of the door, is a strategy to prevent smoke from entering the room but does not extinguish the fire.

4. A group of newly licensed nurses is being instructed by a nurse about the responsibilities that organ donation and procurement involve. When the nurse explains that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant have to meet the same qualifications, the newly licensed nurses should understand that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Nonmaleficence

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is 'C: Justice.' Justice in healthcare ethics involves fairness and providing equal treatment to all individuals in similar situations. In this scenario, ensuring that all clients waiting for a kidney transplant meet the same qualifications aligns with the principle of justice by offering equal opportunities for transplantation. Choice A, 'Fidelity,' pertains to keeping promises and being loyal to patients, not the equal treatment of individuals. Choice B, 'Autonomy,' refers to respecting patients' rights to make decisions about their own care, which is not directly related to the equal qualifications for kidney transplants. Choice D, 'Nonmaleficence,' focuses on the obligation to do no harm, which is important in healthcare but not the primary ethical principle demonstrated in this scenario.

5. A client with a history of chronic renal failure is admitted with generalized edema. Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor to assess the client's fluid balance?

• A. Serum potassium
• B. Serum calcium
• C. Serum albumin
• D. Serum sodium

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, Serum albumin. In clients with chronic renal failure and generalized edema, monitoring serum albumin levels is crucial as it is a key indicator of fluid balance. Low serum albumin levels can contribute to edema formation due to decreased oncotic pressure, indicating fluid imbalance. Serum potassium (Choice A) is more related to kidney function and electrolyte balance in renal failure patients. Serum calcium (Choice B) is important for bone health but is not directly related to fluid balance. Serum sodium (Choice D) is more indicative of hydration status and electrolyte balance but may not directly reflect fluid balance in the context of chronic renal failure and edema.

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