Nursing Elites

1. A client who is postoperative following abdominal surgery has an eviscerated wound. What should the nurse do first?

• A. Cover the incision with a moist sterile dressing.
• B. Notify the surgeon immediately.
• C. Assess the client's vital signs.
• D. Place the client in a supine position with knees bent.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The initial action the nurse should take after discovering a client's eviscerated wound is to cover the incision with a moist sterile dressing. This step is crucial to protect the exposed tissue, prevent infection, and create a conducive environment for healing. While notifying the surgeon is important, addressing the wound immediately takes precedence. Assessing vital signs is essential but should follow the immediate intervention of covering the wound. Placing the client in a supine position with knees bent is not the priority in managing an eviscerated wound; the first step is to cover the wound to protect the exposed tissue.

2. The nurse manager hears a healthcare provider loudly criticize one of the staff nurses within the hearing of others. The employee does not respond to the healthcare provider's complaints. The nurse manager's next action should be to

• A. Approach the healthcare provider and staff nurse for a private meeting to address the situation.
• B. Allow the staff nurse to handle this situation without interference.
• C. Notify other administrative personnel of a breach of professional conduct.
• D. Request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse manager in this situation is to request an immediate private meeting with the healthcare provider and staff nurse. By doing so, the nurse manager can facilitate a more appropriate and professional discussion of the issues at hand in a private setting. Option A, which involves addressing the behavior quietly, may not effectively resolve the issue as it needs to be openly discussed. Option B is not advisable as the nurse manager should intervene to address the situation and provide support. Option C, notifying other administrative personnel, may escalate the situation unnecessarily before attempting to resolve it directly with the involved parties.

3. A nurse is assigned to a manipulative client for 5 days and becomes aware of feelings of reluctance to interact with the client. What should the nurse do next?

• A. Discuss the feelings of reluctance with an objective peer or supervisor
• B. Limit contacts with the client to avoid reinforcement of the manipulative behavior
• C. Confront the client about the negative effects of behaviors on other clients and staff
• D. Develop a behavior modification plan that will promote more functional behavior

Correct answer: A

Rationale: It is important for the nurse to address their feelings of reluctance when dealing with a manipulative client by discussing them with an objective peer or supervisor. This action can provide valuable insight and support for managing the nurse-client relationship. Choice B should be avoided as limiting contacts with the client may not address the underlying issues and could potentially harm the therapeutic relationship. Choice C is confrontational and may escalate the situation rather than resolve it. Choice D, while important, should come after addressing the nurse's feelings and seeking support.

4. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?

• A. Increased serum glucose
• B. Decreased albumin
• C. Decreased potassium
• D. Increased sodium retention

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.

5. A 2-year-old child is brought to the health care provider's office with a chief complaint of mild diarrhea for 2 days. Nutritional counseling by the nurse should include which statement?

• A. Place the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours
• B. Continue with the regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids
• C. Give bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated
• D. Place NPO for 24 hours, then rehydrate with milk and water

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In managing mild diarrhea in a 2-year-old child, it is important to maintain their regular diet and include oral rehydration fluids. Choice A of placing the child on clear liquids and gelatin for 24 hours may not provide adequate nutrition and can lead to further electrolyte imbalances. Choice C of giving bananas, apples, rice, and toast as tolerated is a part of the BRAT diet, which is not recommended as the primary approach anymore due to its limited nutritional value. Choice D of placing the child NPO for 24 hours and then rehydrating with milk and water is not appropriate as it can worsen dehydration and delay recovery. Therefore, the best option is to continue the child's regular diet while incorporating oral rehydration fluids to prevent dehydration and maintain nutritional status.

Similar Questions