a nurse is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client who will have emergency surgery for appendicitis which of the
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HESI Fundamentals Study Guide

1. A client is demonstrating postoperative deep breathing and coughing exercises to a client who will have emergency surgery for appendicitis. Which of the following statements indicates a lack of readiness to learn by the client?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because severe pain can hinder the client's ability to participate effectively in learning. Pain can be distracting and may prevent the client from focusing on acquiring new information or skills. Choice B is incorrect because asking for a demonstration shows an interest in learning and readiness to understand the exercises. Choice C is incorrect as inquiring about potential complications indicates the client's engagement in understanding the procedure and its outcomes, demonstrating readiness to learn. Choice D is incorrect as agreeing to the procedure does not necessarily reflect a lack of readiness to learn. The client may still be open to receiving information about postoperative care, indicating a level of readiness to learn despite agreeing to the surgery.

2. The healthcare provider is caring for a client with a wound infection. Which type of dressing is most appropriate to use to promote healing by secondary intention?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrocolloid dressings are ideal for promoting healing by secondary intention in wound infections. These dressings create a moist environment that supports autolytic debridement and facilitates the healing process. Dry gauze dressings (Option A) may lead to adherence, causing trauma upon removal and disrupting the wound bed. Wet-to-dry dressings (Option B) are primarily used for mechanical debridement and can be painful during dressing changes. Transparent film dressings (Option C) are more suitable for superficial wounds with minimal exudate and are not typically used for wound infections requiring healing by secondary intention.

3. The patient diagnosed with athlete's foot (tinea pedis) states that he is relieved because it is only athlete's foot, and it can be treated easily. Which information about this condition should the nurse consider when formulating a response to the patient?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Athlete's foot, also known as tinea pedis, is a contagious fungal infection that can easily spread to other body parts, particularly the hands. It often recurs if not properly treated, making choice A the correct answer. Choices B and C are incorrect because while it is beneficial to air-dry feet after bathing to prevent moisture buildup, athlete's foot is commonly treated with antifungal medications, not salicylic acid. Choice D is incorrect because athlete's foot is caused by a fungal infection, not lice.

4. To ensure client safety, a nurse manager is planning to observe a newly licensed nurse perform a straight catheterization on a client. In which of the following roles is a nurse manager functioning?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Supervisor. In this scenario, the nurse manager is acting as a supervisor to oversee and ensure the newly licensed nurse performs the straight catheterization correctly, following protocols, and maintaining client safety. A supervisor role involves monitoring and guiding staff in their duties to ensure quality care. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. A case manager typically manages a case load of clients but does not provide direct care like in this situation. Client educator and client advocate roles do not directly relate to supervising or overseeing a procedure being performed by another nurse.

5. While providing care to a group of patients, which patient should the nurse prioritize seeing first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The nurse should prioritize seeing the patient with a hip replacement on prolonged bed rest reporting chest pain and dyspnea first. This patient is at higher risk for deep vein thrombosis due to prolonged bed rest, which can lead to a life-threatening embolus. Chest pain and dyspnea could also indicate a potential pulmonary embolism, which requires immediate assessment and intervention. The other patients, while requiring care, do not present with symptoms that suggest an immediate life-threatening situation, making them lower priority at this time. Therefore, option A is the correct choice as it addresses a potentially critical condition that requires immediate attention.

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