HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Test Bank
1. An adolescent client in an outpatient mental health facility tells the nurse that it is hard to follow his treatment plans because his friends discourage him. Which of the following statements should the nurse make?
- A. Ask, 'Tell me more about how your friends discourage you.'
- B. Say, 'Your friends should support you, not discourage you.'
- C. Respond, 'It sounds like your friends are not supportive.'
- D. Suggest, 'You need to focus on your treatment plans regardless of your friends.'
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct approach for the nurse is to ask the client to elaborate on how their friends discourage them. By doing so, the nurse shows empathy, encourages the client to express their feelings, and gains insight into the situation. This open-ended question can help the nurse understand the specific issues the client is facing and work towards finding solutions collaboratively. Choices B, C, and D do not effectively address the client's concerns or encourage further discussion. Choice B is directive and may come off as judgmental, choice C assumes the friends are not supportive without exploring further, and choice D dismisses the client's feelings and the impact of peer influence.
2. A client has had their diet prescription changed to a mechanical soft diet. Which of the following food items should the nurse remove from the client's breakfast tray?
- A. smoothie
- B. sliced banana
- C. pancakes
- D. sunny side up (fried) eggs
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is 'D: sunny side up (fried) eggs.' Fried eggs should be removed as they are not suitable for a mechanical soft diet due to their texture. The yolk of a fried egg is usually too hard and can be difficult for a client on a mechanical soft diet to chew and swallow. Poached or scrambled eggs are better alternatives for this diet as they are softer and easier to consume. Choices A, B, and C are all suitable for a mechanical soft diet as they are softer in texture and easier to chew and swallow.
3. When planning care for a newly admitted elderly client who is severely dehydrated, which task is appropriate to assign to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?
- A. Converse with the client to determine if the mucous membranes are impaired
- B. Report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr
- C. Monitor client's ability to move in the bed
- D. Check skin turgor every 4 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Assigning the UAP to report hourly outputs of less than 30 ml/hr is appropriate as it falls within their scope of practice and does not involve making clinical assessments or decisions. Choices A, C, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of clinical judgment and training. Choice A requires assessing mucous membranes, which is beyond the UAP's scope. Choice C involves assessing movement ability, which requires more specialized training. Choice D involves assessing skin turgor, which also requires a higher level of clinical judgment.
4. When working with a client who does not speak the same language as the nurse and an interpreter is present, which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Talk directly to the client, instead of the interpreter, when speaking.
- B. Speak loudly to the interpreter.
- C. Use gestures to communicate with the client.
- D. Avoid using an interpreter and rely on family members.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When caring for a client who speaks a different language, it is essential to communicate through an interpreter. Talking directly to the client, rather than the interpreter, ensures clear and respectful interaction. Speaking loudly to the interpreter (choice B) is not necessary and may be perceived as disrespectful. Using gestures (choice C) alone may lead to misunderstandings or misinterpretations. Avoiding the use of an interpreter and relying solely on family members (choice D) can compromise the accuracy and confidentiality of the communication.
5. A client who is post-op following a partial colectomy has an NG tube set on low continuous suction. The client complains of a sore throat and asks when the NG tube will be removed. Which response by the nurse is appropriate at this time?
- A. When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.
- B. The tube will be removed once your nausea improves.
- C. You can expect the tube to be removed in about a week.
- D. The tube will be removed once the drainage stops.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct response is A: 'When the GI tract is working again, in about three to five days, the tube can be removed.' After a partial colectomy, the GI tract needs time to recover and start functioning properly. The NG tube is typically removed when peristalsis returns, indicating GI function restoration, which usually occurs within 3-5 days post-op. Choice B is incorrect because the removal of the NG tube is not solely based on nausea improvement. Choice C is incorrect as it provides a longer duration for tube removal than is usually necessary. Choice D is incorrect as the cessation of drainage alone does not dictate NG tube removal; the return of GI function is the primary indicator.
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