HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 55 Questions 2023
1. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bradycardia
- B. Tachycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Digoxin, a medication commonly prescribed for heart failure, can lead to bradycardia, characterized by a slow heart rate. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial to detect and manage this potential side effect early on to prevent complications such as arrhythmias or decreased cardiac output. Tachycardia (choice B) is not typically associated with digoxin use. Hypertension (choice C) and hypotension (choice D) are also not common side effects of digoxin.
2. Which nonfood item is the most common cause of respiratory arrest in young children?
- A. Broken rattles
- B. Buttons
- C. Pacifiers
- D. Latex balloons
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, Latex balloons. Latex balloons can pose a significant choking hazard to young children if inhaled, potentially leading to respiratory arrest. Broken rattles, buttons, and pacifiers are not typically known to cause respiratory arrest in young children. While these items can present choking hazards as well, the most common cause of respiratory arrest among young children is due to inhaling latex balloons.
3. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.
4. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer due to a lesion on the anterior thigh. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a possible indication of a skin malignancy?
- A. An uneven shape
- B. A uniformly colored lesion
- C. A lesion that is small and flat
- D. A lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An uneven shape of a lesion is a common characteristic of malignant skin lesions. Asymmetric or irregularly shaped lesions are concerning for skin cancer and should be reported promptly for further evaluation and management. Choice B, a uniformly colored lesion, is more indicative of a benign lesion as malignant lesions often exhibit variations in color. Choice C, a lesion that is small and flat, does not necessarily indicate malignancy by itself. Choice D, a lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter, is more suggestive of a benign lesion, as malignant lesions are typically larger in size.
5. A child is being assessed for suspected appendicitis. What clinical manifestation is the healthcare professional likely to observe?
- A. Right lower quadrant pain
- B. Left lower quadrant pain
- C. Rebound tenderness
- D. Epigastric pain
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Right lower quadrant pain is a classic symptom of appendicitis. The appendix is typically located in the right lower quadrant of the abdomen, so pain in this area is commonly associated with appendicitis. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because left lower quadrant pain, rebound tenderness, and epigastric pain are not typical manifestations of appendicitis. Left lower quadrant pain is not associated with appendicitis since the appendix is situated in the right lower quadrant. Rebound tenderness is more commonly linked with peritonitis rather than appendicitis. Epigastric pain is not a typical presentation of appendicitis as the pain is usually localized to the right lower quadrant.