Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Tremors
• C. Insomnia
• D. Hyperglycemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Weight gain. When a client is prescribed risperidone, monitoring weight is crucial due to the potential side effect of weight gain associated with this medication. This side effect can be significant as it may lead to other health issues. Choice B, Tremors, is not typically associated with risperidone use. Choice C, Insomnia, is less likely to be a direct side effect of risperidone compared to weight gain. Choice D, Hyperglycemia, is a possible side effect of some antipsychotic medications, but it is not commonly associated with risperidone.

2. A client is prescribed phenytoin for the management of seizures. What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time every day.
• B. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Monitor blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the practical nurse should provide to the client regarding phenytoin is to take the medication at the same time every day. This consistency helps maintain a steady level of the medication in the bloodstream, which is crucial for effectively managing seizures. It is important for clients to adhere to their prescribed dosing schedule to optimize the therapeutic benefits of phenytoin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous, there is no specific interaction between phenytoin and dairy products, and monitoring blood pressure is not a primary concern with phenytoin therapy for seizures.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed escitalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of escitalopram is drowsiness. Escitalopram is known to cause sedation, so clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness, such as driving, until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth, nausea, and headache are also common side effects of various medications but are not specifically associated with escitalopram.

4. A practical nurse (PN) is preparing to administer a scheduled dose of furosemide to a client. Which laboratory value is most important for the PN to review before administering the medication?

• A. Serum calcium level
• B. Serum potassium level
• C. Serum sodium level
• D. Serum magnesium level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is to review the client's serum potassium level before administering furosemide. Furosemide, a loop diuretic, can lead to hypokalemia, making it crucial to assess potassium levels to prevent potential complications like cardiac arrhythmias associated with low potassium levels.

5. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?

• A. Midway through administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next
• D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.

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