HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Monitor the client's blood glucose level.
- B. Encourage the client to increase fluid intake.
- C. Administer insulin as prescribed.
- D. Assess the client's urine output.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The most important action for the LPN/LVN to take when a client with a history of diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps assess the severity of hyperglycemia and guides further interventions. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms by further diluting the blood glucose concentration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) should be done based on the healthcare provider's orders and after assessing the blood glucose levels. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario.
2. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?
- A. 31 gtt/min.
- B. 62 gtt/min.
- C. 93 gtt/min.
- D. 124 gtt/min.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.
3. A nurse in a health clinic is caring for a 20-year-old client who tells the nurse that their last physical exam was in high school. Which of the following health screenings should the nurse expect the provider to perform for this client?
- A. Testicular examination
- B. Blood glucose
- C. Fecal occult blood
- D. Prostate-specific antigen
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A testicular examination is appropriate for a 20-year-old male to screen for testicular cancer, which is more common in younger age groups. Testicular cancer is most frequently diagnosed in individuals between the ages of 15 and 40. Blood glucose screening is typically recommended for older individuals or those at risk for diabetes. Fecal occult blood testing is used for colorectal cancer screening, usually starting at age 50. Prostate-specific antigen testing is commonly considered for prostate cancer screening in older males, typically around age 50. Therefore, the most appropriate screening for the 20-year-old client is the testicular examination.
4. During a patient assessment, which principle should be a priority?
- A. Foot care is always important.
- B. Daily bathing is always important.
- C. Hygiene needs are always important.
- D. Critical thinking is always important.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: During a patient assessment, critical thinking is a priority because a patient's condition can change rapidly, necessitating continuous critical thinking and adaptation of nursing interventions. While foot care, daily bathing, and hygiene needs are important components of patient care, they may not always take precedence over critical thinking, which guides the nurse in making timely and appropriate decisions based on the patient's current condition and needs. Therefore, critical thinking stands out as the most crucial principle during patient assessments.
5. A child is postoperative following a tonsillectomy. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Administer analgesics to the child on a routine schedule throughout the day and night.
- B. Offer fluids to the child immediately after surgery.
- C. Allow the child to return to solid foods gradually.
- D. Avoid administering any medication until the child is fully awake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering analgesics to the child on a routine schedule throughout the day and night is crucial for managing postoperative pain effectively and ensuring the child's comfort. Pain management is a priority in the postoperative period to promote healing and prevent complications. Offering fluids to the child immediately after surgery (Choice B) is essential to prevent dehydration, but pain control takes precedence. Allowing the child to return to solid foods gradually (Choice C) is important, but initially, the child may need to start with clear liquids and progress to soft foods post-tonsillectomy. Avoiding administering any medication until the child is fully awake (Choice D) is not advisable because timely pain relief is essential for the child's comfort and recovery.
Similar Questions
Access More Features
HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access
HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days
- 5,000 Questions with answers
- All HESI courses Coverage
- 30 days access