a client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria polydipsia and polyphagiwhat is the most important action for the lpnlvn to take
Logo

Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Study Guide

1. A client with a history of diabetes mellitus is experiencing polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia. What is the most important action for the LPN/LVN to take?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The most important action for the LPN/LVN to take when a client with a history of diabetes mellitus experiences symptoms of hyperglycemia such as polyuria, polydipsia, and polyphagia is to monitor the client's blood glucose level. This action helps assess the severity of hyperglycemia and guides further interventions. Encouraging the client to increase fluid intake (Choice B) may exacerbate the symptoms by further diluting the blood glucose concentration. Administering insulin as prescribed (Choice C) should be done based on the healthcare provider's orders and after assessing the blood glucose levels. Assessing the client's urine output (Choice D) is important but not the most immediate action needed in this scenario.

2. Which task can the RN delegate to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP)?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Checking the blood pressure of a 2-hour postoperative client is a task that can be safely delegated to an unlicensed assistive personnel (UAP) as it falls within their scope of practice. This task is routine and does not require specialized nursing knowledge or critical decision-making. Options A, B, and D involve tasks that require a higher level of training and critical thinking beyond the scope of a UAP. Taking a history, adjusting tube feeding rates, and monitoring a client receiving chemotherapy are responsibilities that should be performed by licensed healthcare providers who have the necessary skills and training.

3. The LPN/LVN mixes 50 mg of Nipride in 250 ml of D5W and plans to administer the solution at a rate of 5 mcg/kg/min to a client weighing 182 pounds. Using a drip factor of 60 gtt/ml, how many drops per minute should the client receive?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To calculate the drops per minute for the client, first, convert the weight from pounds to kilograms by dividing 182 by 2.2, which equals 82.72 kg. Then, calculate the dose in mcg/min by multiplying the weight in kg by the rate (82.72 kg * 5 mcg/kg/min = 413.6 mcg/min). Next, convert 50 mg to mcg (50 mg * 1000 = 50,000 mcg). Divide the total mcg (50,000 mcg) by the dose per minute (413.6 mcg/min) to get approximately 121 gtt/min. However, since the drip factor is 60 gtt/ml, the correct answer is 124 gtt/min, ensuring the accurate administration rate of the medication. Therefore, choice 'D' is the correct answer. Choices 'A', 'B', and 'C' are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the calculated drops per minute based on the given information.

4. A client with a history of heart failure presents to the clinic with a 2-day history of weight gain, swelling in the legs, and shortness of breath. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing a physical assessment is the most appropriate initial nursing action in this scenario. A thorough physical assessment helps evaluate the client's current condition, severity of symptoms, and identify any immediate concerns. This assessment can provide crucial information to guide further interventions and treatment. Reviewing the client's medication list (choice B) is important but may not address the immediate need for assessing the client's current status. Instructing the client to elevate the legs (choice C) may be beneficial but should come after a thorough assessment. Obtaining a detailed dietary history (choice D) is relevant for heart failure management but is not the most urgent initial action when the client presents with acute symptoms like weight gain, leg swelling, and shortness of breath.

5. When assessing bowel sounds, what action should a healthcare professional take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When assessing bowel sounds, it is crucial to listen before performing any palpation as palpation can alter bowel sounds. The correct technique involves placing the diaphragm of the stethoscope over each quadrant of the abdomen to listen for bowel sounds. Auscultating for at least 5 minutes is recommended to accurately determine the presence or absence of bowel sounds. Asking the client to cough is not necessary for assessing bowel sounds and may not provide relevant information. Therefore, option C is the correct choice as it follows the appropriate procedure for assessing bowel sounds.

Similar Questions

During an admission history assessment, a client informs the nurse about consuming herbal tea every afternoon at work to alleviate stress. What ingredient is likely present in the tea?
What action should a healthcare professional planning to insert an IV for an older adult client take?
A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has MRSA. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of teaching?
A nurse is counseling a young adult who describes having difficulty dealing with several issues. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as the priority to assess further?
When providing oral care for an unconscious client, which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Access More Features

HESI LPN Basic
$69.99/ 30 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

HESI LPN Premium
$149.99/ 90 days

  • 5,000 Questions with answers
  • All HESI courses Coverage
  • 30 days access

Other Courses