HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Study Guide
1. During a follow-up visit, a home health nurse notices that a client with a gastrostomy tube, who receives intermittent feedings and medications, has developed diarrhea. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as a possible cause of the diarrhea?
- A. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water.
- B. The client’s caregiver washes out the feeding bag with hot water every 24 hours.
- C. The client’s caregiver changes the feeding bag every 48 hours.
- D. The client’s caregiver adds water to the formula before administration.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Washing out the feeding bag once every 24 hours with warm water can lead to bacterial growth due to inadequate cleaning, potentially causing diarrhea. Hot water, as in choice B, can also promote bacterial growth, which is not desirable. Changing the feeding bag every 48 hours, like in choice C, is within an acceptable timeframe and is unlikely to be a cause of diarrhea. Adding water to the formula before administration, as in choice D, is a common practice to dilute the formula but is not typically associated with causing diarrhea in this scenario.
2. A client has a sodium level of 125 mEq/L. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
- A. Abdominal cramping
- B. Increased thirst
- C. Elevated blood pressure
- D. Elevated heart rate
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Abdominal cramping is a common manifestation of hyponatremia (low sodium levels). When sodium levels drop, it can lead to changes in the body's water balance, affecting cell function and causing symptoms like abdominal cramping. Increased thirst (choice B) is more commonly associated with hypernatremia (high sodium levels) due to the body's attempt to dilute the excess sodium. Elevated blood pressure (choice C) and elevated heart rate (choice D) are not typically direct manifestations of low sodium levels and are more commonly seen in conditions like dehydration or shock.
3. The healthcare professional is caring for a client with a peripheral intravenous (IV) line that has infiltrated. What is the most appropriate initial action for the healthcare professional to take?
- A. Apply a warm compress to the affected area.
- B. Discontinue the IV and restart it in another site.
- C. Aspirate the IV line and flush it with normal saline.
- D. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct initial action when an IV line infiltrates is to discontinue the IV and restart it in another site. This is crucial to prevent complications such as tissue damage, phlebitis, and infection that can result from the infiltration. Applying a warm compress (Choice A) is not recommended as it can exacerbate the tissue damage caused by the infiltration. Aspirating the IV line and flushing it with normal saline (Choice C) is not appropriate for an infiltrated IV line as it does not address the main issue of infiltration. While notifying the healthcare provider (Choice D) is important, the immediate priority is to discontinue the infiltrated IV to prevent further harm and ensure proper delivery of fluids or medications.
4. Which of the following should a group of community health nurses plan as part of a primary prevention program for occupational pulmonary diseases?
- A. Screening for early symptoms
- B. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions
- C. Elimination of the exposure
- D. Increasing awareness of symptoms
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: 'Elimination of the exposure.' Primary prevention programs for occupational pulmonary diseases aim to prevent the development of these diseases by eliminating or minimizing exposure to harmful substances in the workplace. Screening for early symptoms (Choice A) focuses on secondary prevention, detecting diseases at an early stage. Providing treatment for diagnosed conditions (Choice B) is part of tertiary prevention, managing and treating established diseases. Increasing awareness of symptoms (Choice D) may help in early detection but does not directly address the prevention of exposure, which is crucial for primary prevention of occupational pulmonary diseases.
5. A client with acute hemorrhagic anemia is to receive four units of packed RBCs (red blood cells) as rapidly as possible. Which intervention is most important for the LPN/LVN to implement?
- A. Obtain the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level.
- B. Prime the tubing and set up the blood pump.
- C. Monitor vital signs every 15 minutes for the first hour.
- D. Ensure the accuracy of the blood type match.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Ensuring the accuracy of the blood type match is crucial to prevent transfusion reactions. The LPN/LVN must prioritize this step to avoid adverse outcomes. Obtaining the pre-transfusion hemoglobin level (Option A) is important but not as critical as ensuring blood type compatibility. Priming the tubing and setting up the blood pump (Option B) and monitoring vital signs every 15 minutes (Option C) are essential steps in the transfusion process, but the primary concern should be preventing transfusion reactions by verifying blood type compatibility.
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