HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?
- A. Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate
- B. Maintain the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure
- C. Note the dosage of insulin in units
- D. Use 'subcut' for indicating a subcutaneous injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The Institute for Safe Medication Practices recommends using the complete medication name magnesium sulfate when documenting medications to prevent misinterpretation. Choice B is incorrect because spaces should be maintained between the numerical dose and unit of measure for clarity. Choice C is incorrect as the standard notation for insulin dosage is in units, not using the letter U. Choice D is incorrect as the abbreviation for subcutaneous injection is commonly written as 'subcut' or 'subcutaneous,' not as SC.
2. A client is scheduled for an appendectomy and has given informed consent. Which statement by the client should the nurse address first preoperatively?
- A. “I am afraid to walk if it hurts too much.”
- B. “I don’t understand why I need this surgery.”
- C. “I don’t want my family helping me after the surgery.”
- D. “I am afraid the scar will make me look disfigured.”
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The nurse should address the client's lack of understanding regarding the need for surgery first. Ensuring that the client comprehends the rationale for the procedure is essential for informed consent. Choices A, C, and D, while important, do not directly impact the client's understanding of the necessity of the surgery and can be addressed after clarifying the reason for the procedure.
3. Postoperative client with fluid volume deficit. Which change indicates successful treatment?
- A. Decrease in heart rate
- B. Increase in blood pressure
- C. Decrease in respiratory rate
- D. Increase in urine output
Correct answer: A
Rationale: A decrease in heart rate can indicate improved fluid balance and successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. When a client is experiencing fluid volume deficit, the heart rate typically increases as a compensatory mechanism to maintain cardiac output. As fluid volume is restored and the deficit is corrected, the heart rate should decrease back towards a normal range. Choices B, C, and D are less likely to be directly related to the successful treatment of fluid volume deficit. An increase in blood pressure may occur as a compensatory response to fluid volume deficit; a decrease in respiratory rate is not a typical indicator of fluid volume deficit correction; and an increase in urine output can be a sign of improved kidney function but may not directly reflect fluid volume status.
4. A client has an indwelling urinary catheter. Which of the following assessment findings indicates that the catheter requires irrigation?
- A. Bladder scan shows 525 mL of urine
- B. Urine has a strong odor
- C. The client reports abdominal discomfort
- D. The catheter is blocked or not draining
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because if the catheter is blocked or not draining, it may need irrigation to restore proper flow. Option A, 'Bladder scan shows 525 mL of urine,' does not necessarily indicate the need for irrigation as it could be within the expected range for catheter drainage. Option B, 'Urine has a strong odor,' may indicate a urinary tract infection but does not directly correlate with the need for catheter irrigation. Option C, 'The client reports abdominal discomfort,' could indicate various issues but does not specifically suggest the need for catheter irrigation.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who is postoperative and has signs of hemorrhagic shock. When the nurse notifies the surgeon, he directs her to continue measuring the client's vital signs every 15 minutes and call him back in 1 hour. From a legal perspective, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Document the provider's directive in the medical record
- B. Notify the nursing manager
- C. Consult the facility's risk manager
- D. Complete an incident report
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse is facing a critical situation with a client showing signs of hemorrhagic shock. The surgeon's directive of waiting for an hour without providing immediate intervention poses a risk to the client's well-being. The nurse should prioritize the client's safety and advocate for timely and appropriate care. Notifying the nursing manager is the correct action as it activates the chain of command to ensure that the client receives the necessary care promptly. Documenting the provider's directive, consulting the risk manager, or completing an incident report are not the immediate actions needed to address the client's deteriorating condition and ensure patient safety.
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