HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. A nurse is preparing to review medication documentation with a group of newly licensed nurses. Which of the following statements should the nurse manager plan to include in the teaching?
- A. Use the complete name of the medication magnesium sulfate
- B. Maintain the space between the numerical dose and the unit of measure
- C. Note the dosage of insulin in units
- D. Use 'subcut' for indicating a subcutaneous injection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. The Institute for Safe Medication Practices recommends using the complete medication name magnesium sulfate when documenting medications to prevent misinterpretation. Choice B is incorrect because spaces should be maintained between the numerical dose and unit of measure for clarity. Choice C is incorrect as the standard notation for insulin dosage is in units, not using the letter U. Choice D is incorrect as the abbreviation for subcutaneous injection is commonly written as 'subcut' or 'subcutaneous,' not as SC.
2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease reports black, tarry stools. What is the most appropriate action for the LPN/LVN to take?
- A. Reassure the client that this is not a normal finding.
- B. Notify the healthcare provider immediately.
- C. Document the finding in the client’s chart.
- D. Encourage the client to seek medical attention.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Notify the healthcare provider immediately. Black, tarry stools can be indicative of gastrointestinal bleeding, a serious complication that requires urgent medical evaluation and intervention. This finding should not be dismissed or considered normal without further assessment. Option A is incorrect because black, tarry stools are not a normal finding and may signify a significant health issue. Option C is incorrect as immediate action is needed rather than just documenting the finding. Option D is not the best choice as it simply suggests seeking medical attention without emphasizing the urgency of the situation. Prompt notification of the healthcare provider is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management of potential gastrointestinal bleeding.
3. The nurse is assessing a 17-year-old female client with bulimia. Which of the following laboratory reports would the nurse anticipate?
- A. Increased serum glucose
- B. Decreased albumin
- C. Decreased potassium
- D. Increased sodium retention
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C, 'Decreased potassium.' Clients with bulimia often have decreased potassium levels due to frequent vomiting, which causes a loss of this essential electrolyte. This loss can lead to various complications such as cardiac arrhythmias. Option A, 'Increased serum glucose,' is not typically associated with bulimia. Option B, 'Decreased albumin,' is more related to malnutrition or liver disease rather than bulimia. Option D, 'Increased sodium retention,' is not a common finding in clients with bulimia; instead, they may experience electrolyte imbalances like hyponatremia due to purging behaviors.
4. A client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy. Which finding indicates that the treatment is effective?
- A. Decreased white blood cell count
- B. Decreased respiratory rate
- C. Increased breath sounds
- D. Increased heart rate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Increased breath sounds. When a client with pneumonia is receiving antibiotic therapy, increased breath sounds indicate that the lungs are clearing and the pneumonia is resolving. This improvement in breath sounds suggests that the antibiotics are effectively treating the infection. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because a decreased white blood cell count, decreased respiratory rate, and increased heart rate are not specific indicators of the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy in treating pneumonia. While these parameters may change in response to treatment, they do not directly reflect the resolution of the pneumonia infection.
5. A client asks a nurse about their Snellen eye test results. The client's visual acuity is 20/30. Which of the following responses should the nurse make?
- A. “Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.”
- B. “Your right eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your left eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
- C. “Your eyes see at 30 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 20 feet.”
- D. “Your left eye can see the chart clearly at 20 feet, and your right eye can see the chart clearly at 30 feet.”
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'Your eyes see at 20 feet what visually unimpaired eyes see at 30 feet.' In the Snellen eye test, a visual acuity of 20/30 means that the client sees at 20 feet what a person with normal vision sees at 30 feet. This indicates that the client's vision is slightly worse than average. Choice B is incorrect as it incorrectly describes the visual acuity of each eye individually, rather than the combined visual acuity. Choice C is incorrect as it misinterprets the meaning of the Snellen eye test results by reversing the values. Choice D is incorrect as it inaccurately describes the visual acuity of the client's eyes, attributing different visual acuities to each eye instead of a combined measurement as indicated by 20/30.
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