Nursing Elites

1. When preparing to lift and reposition a patient, which action should the nurse take first?

• A. Assess weight to determine assistance needs.
• B. Position a drawsheet under the patient.
• C. Delegate the task to a nursing assistive personnel.
• D. Attempt to manually lift the patient alone before asking for assistance.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The first action the nurse should take when preparing to lift and reposition a patient is to assess the patient's weight to determine the assistance needed. This step is crucial for the safety of both the patient and the nurse. Positioning a drawsheet under the patient (Choice B) is important for the comfort and safety during the repositioning process but should come after assessing the weight and assistance requirements. Delegating the task to a nursing assistive personnel (Choice C) can be considered once the assessment is complete and additional help is needed. Attempting to manually lift the patient alone before asking for assistance (Choice D) is unsafe and should never be done without first assessing the weight and determining the need for help.

2. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease is admitted with abdominal pain. Which finding should the LPN/LVN report to the healthcare provider immediately?

• A. Positive bowel sounds
• B. Rebound tenderness
• C. Increased appetite
• D. Elevated temperature

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Elevated temperature is the correct finding to report immediately in a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease and abdominal pain. This could indicate a perforation or worsening of the condition, requiring prompt medical attention. Positive bowel sounds (Choice A) are a normal finding and not a cause for concern. Rebound tenderness (Choice B) is concerning but does not require immediate attention compared to an elevated temperature. Increased appetite (Choice C) is not a red flag symptom for peptic ulcer disease and can be considered a positive sign, not requiring immediate attention.

3. A nurse is planning care for a client who reports abdominal pain. An assessment by the nurse reveals the client has a temperature of 39.2°C (102°F), heart rate of 105/min, a soft tender abdomen, and menses overdue by 2 days. Which of the following findings should be the nurse’s priority?

• A. Temperature
• B. Menses overdue
• C. Soft tender abdomen
• D. Heart rate

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Temperature. A high temperature of 39.2°C (102°F) indicates a fever, which can be a sign of infection or another serious condition. Investigating the cause of the fever is a priority to address any underlying health issue promptly. Menses overdue (choice B) could be relevant but is not as urgent as addressing a fever. A soft tender abdomen (choice C) is important but may be a consequence of the underlying condition causing the fever. Heart rate (choice D) is also significant, but the priority here is to identify the cause of the fever.

4. A client has a new prescription for nitroglycerin sublingual tablets. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include?

• A. Take the medication with food.
• B. Place the tablet under your tongue and let it dissolve completely.
• C. Swallow the tablet whole with a glass of water.
• D. Chew the tablet for faster relief.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed nitroglycerin sublingual tablets is to place the tablet under the tongue and let it dissolve completely. This route of administration allows for rapid absorption of the medication through the oral mucosa, providing quick relief for angina symptoms. Option A, taking the medication with food, is incorrect as nitroglycerin should be taken sublingually, not with food. Option C, swallowing the tablet whole with water, is incorrect as sublingual tablets should not be swallowed whole. Option D, chewing the tablet for faster relief, is also incorrect as chewing the tablet can lead to rapid absorption and potential adverse effects rather than a controlled release for angina relief.

5. A client is 1-day postoperative and reports a pain level of 10 on a scale of 0 to 10. After reviewing the client’s medication administration record, which of the following medications should be administered?

• A. Meperidine 75 mg IM
• B. Fentanyl 50 mcg/hr transdermal patch
• C. Morphine 2 mg IV
• D. Oxycodone 10 mg PO

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Morphine IV is the most appropriate choice for severe postoperative pain due to its rapid onset and effectiveness. Meperidine is not preferred due to its potential side effects, and fentanyl patches are typically used for chronic pain, not acute postoperative pain. Oxycodone taken orally is not ideal for providing immediate relief in this situation.

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