HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals 2023 Quizlet
1. What action should the nurse take to prevent the development of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) in a client who is postoperative day 2 following hip replacement surgery?
- A. Encourage the client to remain on bed rest as much as possible.
- B. Apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to the client's legs.
- C. Massage the client's legs to improve circulation.
- D. Encourage the client to perform ankle and foot exercises.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action to prevent DVT in a postoperative client is to apply sequential compression devices (SCDs) to promote venous return. This helps prevent stasis of blood in the lower extremities, reducing the risk of clot formation. Encouraging bed rest (Choice A) may lead to decreased mobility and increase the risk of DVT. Massaging the client's legs (Choice C) is contraindicated in the presence of DVT as it can dislodge a clot. Encouraging ankle and foot exercises (Choice D) may be beneficial for circulation, but SCDs are more effective at preventing DVT in this scenario.
2. A nurse has an order to remove sutures from a client. After retrieving the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves, which of the following actions should the nurse take next?
- A. Clean sutures along the incision site.
- B. Grasp the knot of the sutures with forceps.
- C. Cut the sutures close to the skin on one side.
- D. Pull out the sutures with forceps in one piece.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take next after preparing the suture remover kit and applying sterile gloves is to clean sutures along the incision site. This step is crucial in preventing infection, which is the greatest risk to the client during suture removal. Cleaning the site helps minimize the risk of introducing microorganisms into the incision, reducing the chances of infection. Grasping at the knot of the sutures with forceps (Choice B) is incorrect as it does not address the need to clean the incision. Cutting the sutures close to the skin on one side (Choice C) or pulling out the sutures with forceps in one piece (Choice D) without proper cleaning can increase the risk of infection and should not be the next step in the process of suture removal.
3. During a skin assessment, a client expresses concern about skin cancer due to a lesion on the anterior thigh. Which of the following findings should the nurse report to the provider as a possible indication of a skin malignancy?
- A. An uneven shape
- B. A uniformly colored lesion
- C. A lesion that is small and flat
- D. A lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter
Correct answer: A
Rationale: An uneven shape of a lesion is a common characteristic of malignant skin lesions. Asymmetric or irregularly shaped lesions are concerning for skin cancer and should be reported promptly for further evaluation and management. Choice B, a uniformly colored lesion, is more indicative of a benign lesion as malignant lesions often exhibit variations in color. Choice C, a lesion that is small and flat, does not necessarily indicate malignancy by itself. Choice D, a lesion that is less than 1 cm in diameter, is more suggestive of a benign lesion, as malignant lesions are typically larger in size.
4. A client with hypertension is prescribed a low-sodium diet. Which food should the LPN/LVN recommend the client avoid?
- A. Fresh fruits
- B. Grilled chicken
- C. Whole grain bread
- D. Canned soup
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D, canned soup. Canned soup is often high in sodium, which contradicts the low-sodium diet prescribed for hypertension. Fresh fruits (A) are generally low in sodium and are a healthy choice. Grilled chicken (B) is a lean protein option that is suitable for a low-sodium diet. Whole grain bread (C) is also a good choice as it is not typically high in sodium. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should recommend avoiding canned soup to adhere to the low-sodium dietary restrictions.
5. The healthcare provider is observing the way a patient walks. Which aspect is the healthcare provider assessing?
- A. Activity tolerance
- B. Body alignment
- C. Range of motion
- D. Gait
Correct answer: D
Rationale: When assessing the way a patient walks, the healthcare provider is evaluating the gait, which refers to a particular manner or style of walking. Body alignment pertains to the positioning of body parts in relation to one another, range of motion refers to the extent of movement of a joint, and activity tolerance relates to the ability to endure physical activities. In this scenario, observing the patient's walking pattern specifically focuses on gait assessment.
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