Nursing Elites

1. The nurse is caring for an older adult patient diagnosed with Alzheimer's disease who is ambulatory but requires total assistance with activities of daily living (ADLs). The nurse notices that the patient is edentulous. Which area should the nurse assess?

• A. Assess oral cavity.
• B. Assess room for drafts.
• C. Assess ankles for edema.
• D. Assess for reduced sensations.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to assess the oral cavity. 'Edentulous' means without teeth, so the nurse should assess the oral cavity for any issues related to oral health, dentures, or potential complications. This assessment is crucial to prevent oral health problems and ensure proper care for the patient. Assessing the room for drafts (choice B) is unrelated to the patient's edentulous status and does not address the immediate care needs. Assessing ankles for edema (choice C) is important for circulatory assessment but not directly related to the patient being edentulous. Assessing for reduced sensations (choice D) would be more relevant for neurological or sensory concerns, which are not specifically associated with being edentulous.

2. While reviewing the medical records of a client with a pressure ulcer, a nurse should expect which of the following findings?

• A. Albumin level of 3 g/dL
• B. Hemoglobin level of 12 g/dL
• C. WBC count of 6,000/mm³
• D. Blood glucose level of 100 mg/dL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An albumin level below 3.5 g/dL indicates protein deficiency, which can impair wound healing and contribute to pressure ulcer formation. Hemoglobin level and WBC count are not directly associated with pressure ulcers. Blood glucose level, while important for overall health, is not specifically linked to pressure ulcer development.

3. A client is drawing up and mixing insulin under the observation of a nurse. Which of the following findings should the nurse identify as an indication that psychomotor learning has taken place?

• A. The client is able to discuss the appropriate technique.
• B. The client is able to demonstrate the appropriate technique.
• C. The client states an understanding of the process.
• D. The client is able to write the steps on a piece of paper.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B because the ability to demonstrate the appropriate technique shows that the client has acquired the psychomotor skills needed for insulin preparation. Merely discussing, stating an understanding, or writing the steps does not confirm that the client can physically perform the task correctly. Being able to demonstrate indicates practical application and mastery of the skill. Choice A is incorrect because discussing the technique does not necessarily mean the client can physically perform it. Choice C is incorrect as stating an understanding does not guarantee the client's ability to perform the task. Choice D is incorrect because writing the steps does not assess the client's physical execution of the technique.

4. The healthcare provider prescribes 1,000 ml of Ringer's Lactate with 30 Units of Pitocin to run over 4 hours for a client who has just delivered a 10-pound infant by cesarean section. The tubing has been changed to a 20 gtt/ml administration set. The LPN/LVN plans to set the flow rate at how many gtt/min?

• A. 42 gtt/min
• B. 83 gtt/min
• C. 125 gtt/min
• D. 250 gtt/min

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To calculate the flow rate in drops per minute (gtt/min), the formula is Total volume (mL) ÷ Time (min) ÷ Drop factor (gtt/mL). In this case, 1000 mL ÷ 240 min ÷ 20 gtt/mL = 83 gtt/min. Therefore, setting the flow rate to 83 gtt/min ensures the correct administration of the IV fluids and medication. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as they do not align with the correct calculation based on the provided information.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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