HESI LPN
Fundamentals HESI
1. A client receiving chlorpromazine HCL (Thorazine) is in psychiatric home care. During a home visit, the nurse observes the client smacking her lips alternately with grinding her teeth. The nurse recognizes this assessment finding as what?
- A. Dystonia
- B. Akathisia
- C. Bradykinesia
- D. Tardive dyskinesia
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D: Tardive dyskinesia. Tardive dyskinesia is a potential side effect of long-term antipsychotic use, characterized by involuntary movements like lip smacking and repetitive, purposeless movements. Choice A, dystonia, presents with sustained or repetitive muscle contractions. Choice B, akathisia, involves motor restlessness and a compelling need to be in constant motion. Choice C, bradykinesia, refers to slowness of movement typically seen in Parkinson's disease, not lip smacking and teeth grinding, which are indicative of tardive dyskinesia.
2. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a prescription for a stool specimen to be sent to the laboratory to be tested for ova and parasites. Which of the following instructions regarding specimen collection should the healthcare professional provide to the assistive personnel?
- A. Collect at least 2 inches of formed stool.
- B. Wear sterile gloves while obtaining the specimen.
- C. Use a culturette for specimen collection.
- D. Record the date and time the stool was collected.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: To ensure accurate testing, a minimum amount of stool is required for specimen collection, typically at least 2 inches of formed stool. This amount provides an adequate sample for testing. Wearing sterile gloves is important for infection control but is not specifically required for stool specimen collection. Using a culturette is not typically necessary for collecting stool specimens. Recording the date and time the stool was collected is essential to ensure timely processing but does not directly impact the collection of the specimen itself.
3. After a CT scan with intravenous contrast medium, a client returns to the room complaining of shortness of breath and itching. Which intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Call respiratory therapy to administer a breathing treatment.
- B. Send for an emergency tracheostomy set.
- C. Prepare a dose of epinephrine.
- D. Review the client's complete list of allergies.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Preparing a dose of epinephrine is the correct intervention in this situation as the client is displaying symptoms of an anaphylactic reaction to the contrast medium used during the CT scan. Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis due to its ability to reverse the symptoms rapidly. Calling respiratory therapy for a breathing treatment (Choice A) may not address the underlying allergic reaction and delay appropriate treatment. Sending for an emergency tracheostomy set (Choice B) is not indicated as the client's symptoms suggest an allergic reaction rather than airway obstruction. Reviewing the client's complete list of allergies (Choice D) is important but would not provide immediate relief for the client's current symptoms; administering epinephrine takes precedence in this situation.
4. The client has been diagnosed with deep vein thrombosis (DVT). Which symptom would be most concerning?
- A. Pain in the affected leg
- B. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
- C. Shortness of breath
- D. Swelling in the affected leg
Correct answer: C
Rationale: Shortness of breath is the most concerning symptom in a client with deep vein thrombosis (DVT) because it could indicate a pulmonary embolism, a life-threatening complication where a blood clot travels to the lungs. This condition requires immediate medical attention. While pain, redness, warmth, and swelling in the affected leg are common symptoms of DVT, shortness of breath suggests a more critical situation that necessitates urgent intervention.
5. What is the main focus of secondary prevention?
- A. Early detection and treatment
- B. Rehabilitation
- C. Health promotion
- D. Palliative care
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The main focus of secondary prevention is early detection and treatment of disease. This approach aims to identify health conditions in their early stages when they are easier to treat or manage effectively. Choice B, rehabilitation, is more aligned with restoring function after an illness or injury has occurred. Choice C, health promotion, concentrates on educating and empowering individuals to adopt healthy behaviors to prevent the onset of diseases. Choice D, palliative care, is focused on providing comfort and improving the quality of life for individuals with serious illnesses or at the end of life, rather than on early detection and treatment.