HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam Test Bank
1. A client postoperative expresses pain during dressing changes. What should the nurse prioritize?
- A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client’s dressing.
- B. Change the dressing less frequently.
- C. Apply a topical anesthetic before removing the dressing.
- D. Use a non-adherent dressing to reduce pain.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering pain medication before changing the dressing is the priority action as it will help alleviate the client's pain and improve comfort. Choice B, changing the dressing less frequently, may hinder proper wound care and healing. Applying a topical anesthetic (choice C) might offer some relief but systemic pain medication is more effective. Using a non-adherent dressing (choice D) can reduce pain during dressing changes, but addressing immediate pain with medication is the most appropriate intervention in this case.
2. A nurse observes a family member administer a rectal suppository by having the client lie on the left side for the administration. The family member pushed the suppository until the finger went up to the second knuckle. After 10 minutes, the client was told by the family member to turn to the right side. What is the appropriate comment for the nurse to make?
- A. Why don’t we now have the client turn back to the left side?
- B. That was done correctly. Did you have any problems with the insertion?
- C. Let’s check to see if the suppository is in far enough.
- D. Did you feel any stool in the intestinal tract?
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Choice B is the correct answer because the family member's actions in administering the rectal suppository were correct. Providing positive feedback and asking if there were any problems with the insertion is an appropriate response. Choice A is incorrect because there is no need to have the client turn back to the left side after the suppository has been administered. Choice C is incorrect as there is no indication that the suppository was not inserted correctly, so there is no need to check if it is in far enough. Choice D is incorrect because feeling stool in the intestinal tract is not relevant to the administration of a rectal suppository.
3. The provider orders Lanoxin (digoxin) 0.125 mg PO and furosemide 40 mg every day. Which of these foods would the nurse reinforce for the client to eat at least daily?
- A. Spaghetti
- B. Watermelon
- C. Chicken
- D. Tomatoes
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is 'Watermelon.' Watermelon is high in potassium, which is important to counteract the potassium loss caused by furosemide. Furosemide is a loop diuretic that can lead to potassium depletion, so consuming potassium-rich foods like watermelon can help maintain electrolyte balance. Choices A, C, and D do not specifically address the need for potassium in this scenario and are not as beneficial for addressing the potential electrolyte imbalance caused by furosemide.
4. The healthcare professional is assessing a client who is post-operative following abdominal surgery. Which assessment finding would require immediate intervention?
- A. Absent bowel sounds
- B. Pain level of 8/10
- C. Temperature of 100.4°F
- D. Saturated abdominal dressing
Correct answer: D
Rationale: A saturated abdominal dressing may indicate active bleeding or other complications that require immediate intervention. This finding suggests a potential surgical site issue that needs urgent attention to prevent further complications. Absent bowel sounds, pain level, and a slightly elevated temperature are common post-operative findings that may not necessarily require immediate intervention compared to a saturated abdominal dressing. Absent bowel sounds can be common after surgery due to anesthesia but may resolve with time. Pain and slightly elevated temperature are expected post-operative findings that can be managed with appropriate pain relief and monitoring. However, a saturated abdominal dressing indicates a potential ongoing issue at the surgical site that needs prompt assessment and intervention to prevent complications.
5. When is a depressed client at highest risk for attempting suicide?
- A. Immediately after admission, during one-to-one observation
- B. 7 to 14 days after initiation of antidepressant medication and psychotherapy
- C. Following an angry outburst with family
- D. When the client is removed from the security room
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Depressed clients are at the highest risk of attempting suicide 7 to 14 days after starting antidepressant medication and psychotherapy. During this time, they may start to regain energy but still feel hopeless, which can increase the risk of suicidal ideation and behavior. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because immediate post-admission, after an angry outburst with family, or when removed from a security room are not specific periods known to be associated with the highest risk of suicide in depressed clients.
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