Nursing Elites

1. A client postoperative expresses pain during dressing changes. What should the nurse prioritize?

• A. Administer pain medication 45 minutes before changing the client’s dressing.
• B. Change the dressing less frequently.
• C. Apply a topical anesthetic before removing the dressing.
• D. Use a non-adherent dressing to reduce pain.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Administering pain medication before changing the dressing is the priority action as it will help alleviate the client's pain and improve comfort. Choice B, changing the dressing less frequently, may hinder proper wound care and healing. Applying a topical anesthetic (choice C) might offer some relief but systemic pain medication is more effective. Using a non-adherent dressing (choice D) can reduce pain during dressing changes, but addressing immediate pain with medication is the most appropriate intervention in this case.

2. A nurse is providing teaching to a newly licensed nurse about the care of a client who has MRSA. Which of the following statements by the newly licensed nurse indicates an understanding of teaching?

• A. I will place the client in a private room
• B. I will tell the client’s visitors to wear a mask when they are within 3 feet of the client
• C. I will remove my gown after leaving the client’s room
• D. I will wear an N95 respirator mask when caring for the client

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: 'I will place the client in a private room.' Placing the client in a private room helps prevent the spread of MRSA, a contact precaution. Choice B is incorrect because visitors should be following standard precautions for MRSA, not just wearing a mask within a specific distance. Choice C is incorrect as the gown should be removed before exiting the client's room to prevent the spread of MRSA. Choice D is incorrect as an N95 respirator mask is not typically required for the care of a client with MRSA; standard precautions are usually sufficient.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a 17-month-old with acetaminophen poisoning. Which lab reports should the provider review first?

• A. Prothrombin time (PT) and partial thromboplastin time (PTT)
• B. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts
• C. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels
• D. Liver enzymes (AST and ALT)

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In acetaminophen poisoning, liver damage is a significant concern due to the potential for hepatotoxicity. Therefore, the healthcare provider should first review liver enzymes such as AST (aspartate aminotransferase) and ALT (alanine aminotransferase) to assess liver function. Prothrombin time and partial thromboplastin time are coagulation studies and are not the priority in acetaminophen poisoning. Red blood cell and white blood cell counts are important in assessing for anemia or infection but are not specific to acetaminophen poisoning. Blood urea nitrogen and creatinine levels primarily assess kidney function, which is not the primary concern in acetaminophen poisoning.

4. A healthcare professional is preparing to administer metoprolol 200 mg PO daily. The medication available is metoprolol 100 mg/tablet. How many tablets should the healthcare professional administer? (Round the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero.)

• A. 1 tablet
• B. 2 tablets
• C. 0.5 tablet
• D. 4 tablets

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To administer 200 mg of metoprolol using 100 mg tablets, the healthcare professional should give 2 tablets. Each tablet contains 100 mg of metoprolol, so 2 tablets will provide the required 200 mg dose. Choice A is incorrect because 1 tablet would only provide 100 mg, which is insufficient. Choice C is incorrect as fractions of tablets are usually not used in practice to ensure accurate dosing. Choice D is incorrect as it would result in an overdose, providing 400 mg instead of the prescribed 200 mg.

5. A client with pneumonia has a decrease in oxygen saturation from 94% to 88% while ambulating. Based on these findings, which intervention should the LPN/LVN implement first?

• A. Assist the ambulating client back to the bed.
• B. Encourage the client to ambulate to resolve pneumonia.
• C. Obtain a prescription for portable oxygen while ambulating.
• D. Move the oximetry probe from the finger to the earlobe.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct intervention is to assist the client back to bed. A decrease in oxygen saturation while ambulating indicates hypoxemia, and the immediate priority is to stabilize oxygen levels. Returning the client to bed allows for rest and decreased oxygen demand, potentially preventing further desaturation. Encouraging continued ambulation (Choice B) may worsen the hypoxemia by increasing oxygen demand. Obtaining portable oxygen (Choice C) is essential but should not delay addressing the low oxygen saturation. Moving the oximetry probe (Choice D) may not address the underlying cause of decreased oxygen saturation and should not be the first intervention.

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