Nursing Elites

1. A healthcare professional is collecting data to evaluate a middle adult's psychosocial development. The healthcare professional should expect middle adults to demonstrate which of the following developmental tasks? (Select ONE that does not apply.)

• A. Develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others.
• B. Spend time focusing on improving job performance.
• C. Welcome opportunities to be creative and productive.
• D. Commit to finding friendship and companionship.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Middle adulthood is a stage where individuals typically focus on various developmental tasks. Option A is incorrect as middle adults do not necessarily develop an acceptance of diminished strength and increased dependence on others; they often strive to maintain independence. Option B is correct as middle adults are usually focused on improving job performance and advancing their careers. Option C is correct as middle adults tend to welcome opportunities to be creative and productive, engaging in new hobbies or projects. Option D is correct as middle adults often commit to finding friendship and companionship as they value social connections and support networks. Therefore, options B, C, and D are the expected developmental tasks for middle adults, making them the correct choices.

2. A provider prescribes cold application for a client who reports ankle joint stiffness. Which of the following assessment findings should the nurse identify as a contraindication to the application of cold?

• A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds
• B. 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle
• C. Warts on the affected ankle
• D. 2+ pitting edema

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Capillary refill of 4 seconds indicates poor circulation, which is a contraindication to cold application as it could worsen the condition by further reducing blood flow. Choice B, a 7.5 cm (3 in) diameter bruise on the ankle, does not directly contraindicate cold application but may need evaluation for possible underlying injuries. Choice C, warts on the affected ankle, do not necessarily contraindicate cold application. Choice D, 2+ pitting edema, is not a direct contraindication to cold application but may need to be addressed separately.

3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is receiving warfarin (Coumadin). Which laboratory value should the LPN/LVN monitor closely while the client is taking this medication?

• A. Blood glucose level
• B. Prothrombin time (PT) and INR
• C. Serum potassium level
• D. Serum creatinine level

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The LPN/LVN should closely monitor Prothrombin time (PT) and INR (Choice B) levels in a client receiving warfarin. These values are crucial to ensure the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose level (Choice A) is not directly relevant to warfarin therapy. While serum potassium level (Choice C) and serum creatinine level (Choice D) are important for other conditions or medications, they are not specifically required to be monitored when a client is on warfarin.

4. When assessing a client's neurologic system, what should the nurse ask the client to close their eyes and identify?

• A. A word whispered by the nurse 30cm from the ear
• B. A number traced on the palm of the hand
• C. The vibration of a tuning fork placed on the foot
• D. A familiar object placed in the hand

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a nurse asks a client to identify a number traced on the palm of the hand with their eyes closed, it assesses the client's ability to perceive touch sensations. This test specifically evaluates the tactile discrimination of the client. The other options do not test the client's ability to identify sensations accurately with eyes closed. Option A tests auditory perception, option C tests vibratory sense, and option D tests object recognition but not tactile discrimination, making them incorrect choices.

5. The nurse manager has been using a decentralized block scheduling plan to staff the nursing unit. However, staff have asked for many changes and exceptions to the schedule over the past few months. The manager considers self-scheduling knowing that this method will

• A. Improve the quality of care
• B. Decrease staff turnover
• C. Minimize the amount of overtime payouts
• D. Improve team morale

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: 'Improve team morale.' Self-scheduling allows staff more control over their work hours, which can lead to increased job satisfaction, autonomy, and a sense of ownership over their schedules. This, in turn, fosters a positive work environment, enhances collaboration among team members, and boosts morale. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because while self-scheduling may indirectly contribute to improved quality of care, decreased staff turnover, and minimized overtime payouts, the primary benefit in this context is the positive impact on team morale.

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