Nursing Elites

1. After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?

• A. Perform a bladder scan to assess for urinary retention.
• B. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
• C. Insert a straight catheter to drain the bladder.
• D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.

2. A healthcare professional is assessing a patient's skin. Which patient is most at risk for impaired skin integrity?

• A. A patient who is afebrile
• B. A patient who is diaphoretic
• C. A patient with strong pedal pulses
• D. A patient with adequate skin turgor

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Excessive moisture on the skin, as seen in a diaphoretic patient, can lead to impaired skin integrity. Diaphoresis softens epidermal cells, promotes bacterial growth, and can cause skin maceration. Afebrile status, strong pedal pulses, and adequate skin turgor are not directly associated with an increased risk of impaired skin integrity. Afebrile indicates the absence of fever, not a risk to skin integrity. Strong pedal pulses suggest good circulation, which is beneficial for skin health. Adequate skin turgor is a sign of good hydration and skin elasticity, indicating a lower risk of impaired skin integrity.

3. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

• A. INR of 1.5
• B. Platelet count of 200,000/mm³
• C. Hemoglobin of 12 g/dL
• D. aPTT of 70 seconds

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

4. A nurse on a rehabilitation unit is preparing to transfer a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. Which of the following techniques should the nurse use?

• A. Place the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed
• B. Position the wheelchair parallel to the bed
• C. Place the wheelchair in front of the bed
• D. Have the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Placing the wheelchair at a 45-degree angle to the bed is the correct technique for transferring a client who is unable to walk from bed to a wheelchair. This positioning facilitates a safer and easier transfer by providing more space for maneuvering and reducing the distance the client needs to be moved. Positioning the wheelchair parallel to the bed (Choice B) may make the transfer more challenging due to limited space and a longer distance to move the client. Placing the wheelchair in front of the bed (Choice C) may not provide an optimal angle for the transfer. Having the client stand and pivot into the wheelchair (Choice D) is not appropriate for a client who is unable to walk and could increase the risk of falls or injuries during the transfer.

5. The nurse assesses a client who has a nasal cannula delivering oxygen at 2 L/min. To assess for skin damage related to the cannula, which areas should the nurse observe?

• A. Tops of the ears
• B. Bridge of the nose
• C. Around the nostrils
• D. Over the cheeks

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is using a nasal cannula for oxygen therapy, the areas prone to skin damage are the tops of the ears and around the nostrils. The pressure exerted by the cannula on these areas can lead to skin breakdown, so it is important for the nurse to observe these sites for any signs of damage. The correct answer is 'Tops of the ears.' Choices 'Bridge of the nose' and 'Over the cheeks' are not typically areas where skin damage related to the cannula would occur, making them incorrect choices.

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