a client who is postoperative day 1 after abdominal surgery has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago what action should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.

3. A client requires bed rest and has a prescription for anti-embolic stockings. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to remove the anti-embolic stockings at least once per shift. This is essential to assess the client's circulation and skin integrity. Option A is incorrect because the stockings should be applied without creases to ensure proper compression. Option B is incorrect as the stockings should be applied when the client's legs are elevated, not in a dependent position. Option D is incorrect as removing the stockings while the client is sitting in a reclining chair is not necessary and does not provide the appropriate assessment opportunity.

4. A client with a diagnosis of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) is receiving anticoagulation therapy. Which of the following laboratory values would be most concerning?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: An INR of 1.5 is below the therapeutic range for clients on anticoagulation therapy, increasing the risk of clot formation. A lower INR indicates inadequate anticoagulation, which can lead to thrombus formation and potential complications such as progression or recurrence of deep vein thrombosis. Platelet count, hemoglobin level, and aPTT are important parameters to monitor in a client with DVT. However, in this scenario, the most concerning value is the suboptimal INR level because it signifies a lack of anticoagulation effectiveness and poses a higher risk of clotting issues.

5. Which action is most important for maintaining sterility when donning sterile gloves?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most crucial action for maintaining sterility when donning sterile gloves is to keep gloved hands above the elbows. This practice is essential to prevent potential contamination and maintain a sterile field. Choices A, maintaining thumbs at a ninety-degree angle, and B, holding hands with fingers pointing downward while gloving, are not as critical as keeping hands above the elbows for maintaining sterility. Choice D, putting the glove on the dominant hand first, is not as important as ensuring that gloved hands are kept above the elbows to maintain sterility.

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