a client who is postoperative day 1 after abdominal surgery has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago what action should the
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Fundamentals Exam

1. After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.

2. A client with diabetes mellitus is admitted with a blood glucose level of 600 mg/dL. What is the priority nursing action for the LPN/LVN?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to administer insulin as prescribed. When a client with diabetes mellitus presents with a critically high blood glucose level like 600 mg/dL, the priority action is to lower the blood glucose level promptly to prevent complications. Insulin is the appropriate medication to rapidly reduce high blood glucose levels. Administering oral hypoglycemic agents may not act quickly enough in this critical situation. While monitoring blood glucose levels frequently is important, immediate intervention to lower the high blood glucose level takes precedence. Providing a high-calorie diet is contraindicated in this scenario as it would further elevate the blood glucose level.

3. A client with lower extremity weakness is being taught a four-point crutch gait by a nurse. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the teaching?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct technique for a four-point crutch gait involves moving the crutches forward, then moving one leg at a time. This method provides stability and support by alternating movement between the crutches and legs. Choice A is incorrect because bearing weight on both legs simultaneously is not the correct method for a four-point gait. Choice B is incorrect as moving the crutches and weak leg together does not provide the required stability. Choice C is incorrect as advancing the crutches and strong leg together does not promote the alternating movement needed for a four-point gait.

4. When developing a plan of care for a client with dementia, what should the LPN/LVN remember about confusion in the elderly?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When caring for a client with dementia, it is crucial to understand that confusion often arises after relocating to new surroundings. This change can disrupt familiar routines and trigger increased disorientation and confusion. Choice A is correct because confusion in the elderly is not a normal part of aging. Choice C is incorrect because confusion in dementia is primarily due to changes in the brain associated with the disease, not just irreversible brain pathology. Choice D is incorrect because while adequate sleep is important for overall health, it alone cannot prevent or cure confusion associated with dementia.

5. Why should a client with an ileal conduit be instructed to empty the collection device frequently?

Correct answer: C

Rationale: A full urine collection bag can cause the device to pull away from the skin, leading to potential leakage and skin irritation. Choice A is incorrect because a full urine collection bag does not force urine to back up into the kidneys. Choice B is incorrect as a full collection bag does not suppress the production of urine. Choice D is incorrect as a full collection bag is unlikely to tear the ileal conduit.

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