HESI LPN
HESI Fundamentals Exam
1. After abdominal surgery, a client has not urinated since the urinary catheter was removed 8 hours ago. What action should the LPN take first?
- A. Perform a bladder scan to assess for urinary retention.
- B. Encourage the client to drink fluids.
- C. Insert a straight catheter to drain the bladder.
- D. Administer a diuretic as prescribed.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Performing a bladder scan is the initial step to assess for urinary retention in a postoperative client. This non-invasive technique helps determine the volume of urine in the bladder, guiding further interventions. Encouraging the client to drink fluids (Choice B) may be beneficial but is not the priority when assessing for urinary retention. Inserting a straight catheter (Choice C) should not be the initial action without first assessing for retention. Administering a diuretic (Choice D) should not be done without confirming the need through assessment.
2. A community health nurse is preparing a campaign about seasonal influenza. Which of the following plans should the nurse include as a secondary prevention?
- A. Screening groups of older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations
- B. Promoting hand hygiene to prevent the spread of influenza
- C. Administering influenza vaccinations
- D. Educating about the importance of healthy lifestyle choices to prevent influenza
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Secondary prevention aims to detect and address health issues early. Screening older adults in nursing care facilities for early influenza manifestations is an example of secondary prevention by identifying cases at an early stage. Choice B, promoting hand hygiene, is a form of primary prevention that aims to prevent the occurrence of influenza. Choice C, administering influenza vaccinations, is a form of primary prevention as well, focusing on preventing the disease before it occurs. Choice D, educating about healthy lifestyle choices, is more related to health promotion and primary prevention rather than secondary prevention.
3. A client is immobile due to a cast, and a nurse is assisting in the use of a fracture bedpan. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
- A. Place the shallow end of the fracture pan under the client’s buttocks.
- B. Encourage the client to remain immobile on the fracture pan for 20 minutes.
- C. Keep the bed flat while the client is on the fracture pan.
- D. Hyperextend the client’s back while the fracture pan is in place.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct action when using a fracture bedpan for an immobile client is to place the shallow end of the pan under the client's buttocks. This positioning helps in proper collection of feces without causing discomfort or injury. Encouraging the client to try to defecate for 20 minutes (Choice B) is inappropriate and unrealistic, as defecation should not be forced or timed. Keeping the bed flat (Choice C) is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed can help promote proper positioning for bedpan use. Hyperextending the client's back (Choice D) is contraindicated and can lead to discomfort and potential injury to the client.
4. Seconal 0.1 gram PRN at bedtime is prescribed to a client for rest. The scored tablets are labeled 1.5 grains per tablet. How many tablets should the LPN/LVN plan to administer?
- A. 0.5 tablet
- B. 1 tablet
- C. 1.5 tablets
- D. 2 tablets
Correct answer: B
Rationale: To calculate the number of tablets needed, convert the prescribed dose of Seconal from grams to grains. Since 1 gram is equal to approximately 15.43 grains, 0.1 gram is roughly 1.543 grains. Given that each tablet contains 1.5 grains, administering 1 tablet (which is slightly more than the 1.543 grains needed) provides the correct dose of Seconal. Therefore, the LPN/LVN should plan to administer 1 tablet. Choice A (0.5 tablet) is incorrect as it would provide less than the required dose. Choice C (1.5 tablets) and Choice D (2 tablets) are incorrect as they would exceed the necessary dosage.
5. During an admission history, a client tells a nurse that she is under a lot of stress. Which of the following physiological responses should the nurse expect to increase as a result of stress?
- A. Blood glucose - a common stress response.
- B. Intestinal peristalsis - should decrease due to stress.
- C. Peripheral blood vessels diameter - can vary in response to stress.
- D. Urine output - may vary but not a typical stress response.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Stress typically increases blood glucose levels due to the release of stress hormones like cortisol and adrenaline. Elevated blood glucose helps provide energy for the body to cope with the stressful situation. Choice B is incorrect because intestinal peristalsis, the movement of the intestines, is more likely to decrease under stress due to the 'fight or flight' response. Choice C is incorrect as peripheral blood vessels' diameter may vary in response to stress, with both constriction and dilation possible. Choice D is incorrect as urine output may increase or decrease depending on individual differences and the specific stress response, but it is not a typical or direct physiological response to stress.
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