Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.

2. A client whose seizure disorder has been managed with phenytoin is admitted to the emergency department with status epilepticus. Which drug should the practical nurse anticipate being prescribed for administration to treat these seizures?

• A. Phenytoin
• B. Diazepam
• C. Phenobarbital
• D. Carbamazepine

Correct answer: B

Rationale: In the management of status epilepticus, which is a life-threatening condition of prolonged seizures, rapid intervention is crucial. Diazepam is the drug of choice for treating status epilepticus due to its fast onset of action and effectiveness in stopping seizures. It acts by enhancing the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA to suppress seizure activity quickly. Phenytoin, although used for long-term seizure control, has a slower onset of action and is not the first-line medication for managing status epilepticus.

3. Prior to administration of the initial dose of the GI agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the client?

• A. Taking an anti-emetic medication
• B. History of glaucoma
• C. Currently pregnant
• D. Allergy to aspirin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is crucial for the nurse to obtain information regarding the client's pregnancy status before administering misoprostol, as this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause uterine contractions. This can lead to serious complications such as miscarriage or premature birth. Therefore, assessing whether the client is currently pregnant is essential to ensure the safe administration of misoprostol. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of misoprostol. While knowing if the client is taking an anti-emetic medication may be relevant to prevent drug interactions, a history of glaucoma and allergy to aspirin are not primary concerns before administering misoprostol.

4. A client with bipolar disorder is taking lithium. Which client assessment data would indicate a potential adverse effect of lithium therapy?

• A. Increased appetite
• B. Dry mouth and increased thirst
• C. Tremors and polyuria
• D. Constipation

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When assessing a client taking lithium, dry mouth and increased thirst are indicators of potential adverse effects. Lithium can lead to nephrogenic diabetes insipidus, causing polyuria and subsequent increased thirst due to impaired water reabsorption in the kidneys. Tremors can also be a sign of lithium toxicity. Monitoring and recognizing these symptoms are crucial in managing lithium therapy and preventing further complications.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer, the nurse should monitor for hypocalcemia. Sevelamer works by binding dietary phosphorus in the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to decreased calcium absorption and potentially cause hypocalcemia.

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