Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Constipation
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Headache
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.

2. A client with hypertension is prescribed valsartan. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypotension
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Hyponatremia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Valsartan is an angiotensin II receptor blocker that can cause hypotension as a side effect by dilating blood vessels. Monitoring blood pressure is crucial to prevent complications related to low blood pressure. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect because valsartan typically does not cause an increase in heart rate. Choice C, Hyperglycemia, is not a common side effect of valsartan. Choice D, Hyponatremia, is also unlikely with valsartan use.

3. A client is taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease. The nurse should include which instruction when educating the client about this medication?

• A. Increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration.
• B. Take medication with food to improve absorption.
• C. Take medication at bedtime to avoid daytime drowsiness.
• D. It can cause nausea and dizziness.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client taking levodopa-carbidopa for Parkinson's disease is to increase fluid intake to prevent dehydration. Levodopa-carbidopa should be taken with food to reduce gastrointestinal upset and improve absorption. Taking medication at bedtime is not necessary to avoid daytime drowsiness. It is crucial to prevent dehydration due to the medication's side effects. Choice B is incorrect because the medication should be taken with food, not at bedtime. Choice C is incorrect as taking the medication with food, rather than on an empty stomach, aids in absorption and reduces gastrointestinal side effects. Choice D is incorrect as it states the side effects of the medication rather than providing specific instructions on its administration.

4. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Peripheral edema
• B. Bradycardia
• C. Hypertension
• D. Increased appetite

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.

5. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?

• A. Administer the drug with the first bite of food
• B. Administer the drug immediately after meals
• C. Administer the drug 30 minutes after meals
• D. Administer the drug 30 minutes before meals

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.

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