a client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil the nurse should monitor for which potential side effect
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.

2. A 6-month-old infant is prescribed digoxin for the treatment of congestive heart failure. Which observation by the practical nurse (PN) warrants immediate intervention for signs of digoxin toxicity?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: A heart rate of 60 beats/min for a 6-month-old infant warrants immediate intervention as it falls below the normal range. The normal heart rate for a 6-month-old is 80 to 150 beats/min when awake, and a rate of 70 beats/min while sleeping is considered within normal limits. Bradycardia (heart rate <60 beats/min) in infants can be a sign of digoxin toxicity, necessitating prompt evaluation and intervention to prevent adverse effects. Sweating across the forehead (Choice B) is a non-specific symptom and may not directly indicate digoxin toxicity. Poor sucking effort (Choice C) and a respiratory rate of 30 breaths/min (Choice D) are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity and do not require immediate intervention in the context of this question.

3. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.

4. A client is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. What potential adverse effect should the practical nurse (PN) instruct the client to monitor for?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Lisinopril, an ACE inhibitor, commonly causes a persistent dry cough as an adverse effect. This cough is distinctive and different from other causes of cough. It is essential for the client to be aware of this potential side effect as it can indicate a serious issue. Instructing the client to monitor for a persistent cough and report it to the healthcare provider promptly is crucial to ensure timely intervention and management. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as constipation, increased appetite, and dry skin are not commonly associated with lisinopril use for hypertension. Therefore, the practical nurse should focus on educating the client about monitoring and reporting a persistent cough.

5. A client with rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed hydroxychloroquine. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydroxychloroquine is known to cause vision changes, including retinopathy. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to report any vision changes promptly to their healthcare provider to prevent any potential ocular complications. While sunlight exposure should be limited due to photosensitivity, the key concern with hydroxychloroquine is the risk of vision changes, not gastrointestinal upset or infections.

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