HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.
2. A client with hypertension is prescribed amlodipine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Peripheral edema
- B. Bradycardia
- C. Hypertension
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Amlodipine is known to cause peripheral edema as a potential adverse effect due to its vasodilatory properties. This can lead to fluid accumulation in the extremities. Monitoring for peripheral edema in patients taking amlodipine is crucial to identify and manage this side effect promptly. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because amlodipine is not associated with causing bradycardia, hypertension (as the patient already has hypertension), or increased appetite as adverse effects.
3. A client with hypertension is prescribed doxazosin. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Hypotension
- B. Hypertension
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Hypernatremia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypotension. Doxazosin is an alpha-blocker medication commonly used to treat hypertension. One of the potential side effects of doxazosin is causing a sudden drop in blood pressure, leading to hypotension. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs and symptoms of low blood pressure when initiating or adjusting the dose of doxazosin.
4. A client is prescribed ondansetron for nausea and vomiting. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Headache
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Constipation
- D. Increased appetite
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Constipation. Ondansetron is known to cause constipation as a potential adverse effect. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for constipation while on this medication to address any issues promptly. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because headache, diarrhea, and increased appetite are not common adverse effects associated with ondansetron.
5. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
- C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
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