HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI 2023 Quizlet
1. A client is prescribed metoprolol. The nurse should monitor for which common side effect of this medication?
- A. Dizziness
- B. Fatigue
- C. Orthostatic hypotension
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Dizziness. Metoprolol, a beta-blocker, can lead to dizziness as a common side effect due to its mechanism of action in reducing heart rate and blood pressure. This effect can cause a sensation of lightheadedness or unsteadiness, particularly when standing up quickly. While fatigue, orthostatic hypotension, and headache are potential side effects of metoprolol, dizziness is commonly observed and should be closely monitored by the nurse to ensure patient safety.
2. After completion of mandatory counseling, the impaired nurse has asked nursing administration to allow return to work. When the nurse administrator approaches the charge nurse with the impaired nurse’s request, what action is best for the charge nurse to take?
- A. Ask to meet with the impaired nurse’s therapist before allowing the nurse back on the unit
- B. Meet with staff to assess their feelings about the impaired nurse’s return to the unit
- C. Since treatment is completed, assign the nurse to routine RN responsibilities
- D. Allow the impaired nurse to return to work and monitor medication administration
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Allowing the impaired nurse to return to work with monitoring is the best course of action in this scenario. By monitoring the impaired nurse's medication administration, the charge nurse can ensure safe practice while supporting the nurse's reintegration into the work environment. Meeting with the therapist (Choice A) is not within the charge nurse's scope of responsibility and may violate the impaired nurse's privacy. Assessing staff feelings (Choice B) is important but should be done by leadership, not the charge nurse. Simply assigning routine duties (Choice C) may not address the need for monitoring and support required in this situation.
3. What is a primary concern for a child with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus?
- A. Increased growth rate
- B. Risk of hyperglycemia
- C. Risk of dehydration
- D. Improved appetite
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Risk of hyperglycemia. When a child is newly diagnosed with diabetes mellitus, one of the primary concerns is the risk of hyperglycemia, which refers to high blood glucose levels. Hyperglycemia can lead to various complications if not managed properly, making it crucial to stabilize blood glucose levels. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because increased growth rate, risk of dehydration, and improved appetite are not primary concerns specifically associated with a new diagnosis of diabetes mellitus.
4. A client who has a new prescription for warfarin (Coumadin) is receiving discharge teaching from a nurse. Which of the following statements indicates that the client understands the teaching?
- A. I will take my warfarin at the same time every day.
- B. I should use a soft-bristled toothbrush while taking this medication.
- C. I should take my warfarin at bedtime.
- D. I should avoid eating foods high in vitamin K while taking this medication.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Taking warfarin at the same time every day is essential to maintain a consistent blood level of the medication. This statement indicates that the client understands the teaching about the importance of consistency in medication timing. Choice B, regarding using a soft-bristled toothbrush, is not directly related to warfarin therapy and does not assess the client's understanding of warfarin administration. Choice C suggesting taking warfarin at bedtime is incorrect; it is generally recommended to take warfarin at the same time each day to avoid variations in drug levels. Choice D about avoiding foods high in vitamin K is relevant as vitamin K can interfere with warfarin's anticoagulant effects. However, it is not the best indicator of understanding the teaching on medication timing, which is crucial for warfarin efficacy.
5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Bruising
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.