a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI 2023

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed warfarin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Increased risk of bleeding. Warfarin is an anticoagulant medication that works by prolonging the time it takes for blood to clot. Therefore, a potential adverse effect of warfarin is an increased risk of bleeding. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, nosebleeds, or blood in the urine or stool. Monitoring for these signs is essential to prevent serious complications associated with excessive bleeding. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because warfarin does not decrease the risk of bleeding, increase the risk of infection, or decrease the risk of infection. The primary concern with warfarin therapy is the potential for bleeding complications, so close monitoring for signs of bleeding is essential.

2. A female client on the mental health unit frequently asks the nurse when she can be discharged. Then, becoming more anxious, she begins to pace the hallway. What intervention should the nurse implement first?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Exploring the client’s reasons for wanting to be discharged should be the first intervention as it helps to address underlying anxieties and concerns. By understanding the client's motivations, the nurse can provide appropriate support and interventions. It can also reduce distress and improve the therapeutic relationship. Reviewing the treatment plan (Choice A) may be important but addressing the immediate distress takes precedence. Informing the healthcare provider (Choice B) can be considered later if necessary. Determining if the client has PRN medication (Choice C) is relevant, but exploring the underlying reasons for the desire to be discharged is more beneficial in this situation.

3. How many chromosomes are typically found in human cells, organized into pairs?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Human cells typically contain 46 chromosomes organized into 23 pairs. This is the correct number for a normal human cell. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because they do not represent the typical chromosome count in human cells.

4. A parent asks a nurse about his infant's expected physical development during the first year of life. Which of the following information should the nurse include?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. By 10 months, infants can typically pull up to a standing position as part of their physical development. Walking with assistance usually begins around 9-12 months, not at 6 months (choice B). Jumping with both feet is a skill that usually develops around 24 months, not at 12 months (choice C). Crawling on hands and knees typically starts around 6-9 months, not at 8 months (choice D). Therefore, the most accurate information to include for an infant's expected physical development at 10 months is the ability to pull up to a standing position.

5. After a child returns from surgery for a tracheostomy, what is the priority nursing action?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The priority nursing action after a tracheostomy surgery is to suction the tracheostomy tube. Suctioning helps maintain a clear airway and prevent complications such as airway obstruction or respiratory distress. While monitoring respiratory status is important, suctioning takes precedence immediately post-surgery to ensure adequate air exchange. Changing the tracheostomy dressing and ensuring tracheostomy ties are secure are also essential tasks but are secondary to the critical need for airway maintenance through suctioning.

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