Nursing Elites

1. A practical nurse (PN) is reviewing teaching with the client and/or significant others about the concurrent use of benztropine and olanzapine to manage psychotic behavior. What information should the PN reinforce?

• A. Benztropine will reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention.
• B. Benztropine potentiates the effect of olanzapine.
• C. Benztropine is used to control the side effects of olanzapine.
• D. The combined effect of these drugs will modify psychotic behavior.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C because benztropine, an anticholinergic drug, is used to control extrapyramidal symptoms associated with olanzapine use. Choice A is incorrect because benztropine does not directly reduce olanzapine's side effect of urinary retention. Choice B is incorrect as benztropine does not potentiate the effect of olanzapine; its main role is to counteract extrapyramidal symptoms. Choice D is incorrect because the primary purpose of using benztropine alongside olanzapine is to manage side effects, not specifically to modify psychotic behavior.

2. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed digoxin. The nurse should monitor for which sign of digoxin toxicity?

• A. Bradycardia
• B. Tachycardia
• C. Nausea
• D. Vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Bradycardia is a common sign of digoxin toxicity. Digoxin, a medication used to treat atrial fibrillation, can lead to toxicity manifesting as various cardiac dysrhythmias, with bradycardia being a notable indicator. Monitoring for bradycardia is crucial as it can indicate the need for dosage adjustment or discontinuation of digoxin to prevent adverse effects. Tachycardia, nausea, and vomiting are not typically associated with digoxin toxicity, making them incorrect choices for monitoring in a client receiving this medication.

3. A client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD) is prescribed omeprazole. The nurse should reinforce which instruction?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client with GERD prescribed omeprazole is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. Omeprazole works best when taken on an empty stomach, approximately 30 minutes before the first meal of the day. This timing maximizes its effectiveness in reducing stomach acid production and helps manage symptoms of GERD more efficiently. Choice B is incorrect because taking omeprazole with meals may reduce its efficacy as it needs an empty stomach for optimal absorption. Choice C is incorrect because omeprazole can be taken with or without food, but it should not be taken with antacids as they can affect its absorption. Choice D is incorrect because taking omeprazole at bedtime is less effective compared to taking it before breakfast due to the circadian rhythm of gastric acid secretion.

4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glipizide. What instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

• A. Take this medication with meals.
• B. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
• C. Take this medication on an empty stomach.
• D. Report any signs of hypoglycemia to the healthcare provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed glipizide, a sulfonylurea used to lower blood sugar levels, is to take the medication with meals. Taking it with meals helps to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia by ensuring a more balanced effect on blood glucose levels throughout the day. It is important for the client to follow this instruction to maintain stable blood sugar levels and reduce the likelihood of experiencing low blood sugar (hypoglycemia) episodes. Choice B is incorrect because there are no specific contraindications between glipizide and alcohol. Choice C is incorrect as glipizide should not be taken on an empty stomach. Choice D is incorrect as while it is important to report signs of hypoglycemia, the primary focus should be on preventing hypoglycemia by taking the medication with meals.

5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Bleeding
• B. Bruising
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

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