Nursing Elites

1. The healthcare provider plans to assess a newborn and check the infant's Moro reflex. What is the healthcare provider evaluating?

• A. Neurological integrity
• B. Renal functioning
• C. Thermoregulation
• D. Respiratory adequacy

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The Moro reflex is an instinctive response observed in newborns, indicating their neurological integrity. This reflex is evaluated by eliciting a startle response in the infant, involving the sudden extension and abduction of the limbs, followed by their retraction. This assessment helps in determining the proper functioning of the infant's nervous system and brain. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not relate to the evaluation of the Moro reflex. Renal functioning pertains to kidney function, thermoregulation refers to temperature control, and respiratory adequacy involves assessing breathing and oxygenation levels, none of which are evaluated through the Moro reflex.

2. The practical nurse is preparing to administer a prescription for cefazolin (Kefzol) 600 mg IM every six hours. The available vial is labeled, 'Cefazolin (Kefzol) 1 gram,' and the instructions for reconstitution state, 'For IM use add 2 ml sterile water for injection. Total volume after reconstitution = 2.5 ml.' When reconstituted, how many milligrams are in each milliliter of solution?

• A. 400 mg/mL
• B. 500 mg/mL
• C. 450 mg/mL
• D. 350 mg/mL

Correct answer: A

Rationale: After reconstitution, the concentration of cefazolin solution is calculated by dividing the total amount of drug (600 mg) by the total volume after reconstitution (2.5 mL). This gives 600 mg / 2.5 mL = 240 mg/mL. However, the question asks for the concentration in each milliliter of solution after reconstitution, so we need to consider the final volume of 2.5 mL. Therefore, 240 mg/mL * 2.5 mL = 600 mg, which means each milliliter contains 240 mg of cefazolin. Therefore, after reconstitution, there are 400 mg of cefazolin in each milliliter of solution. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not accurately reflect the concentration after reconstitution.

3. The nurse is caring for a client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) who is experiencing shortness of breath. What is the priority nursing intervention?

• A. Administer bronchodilator therapy as prescribed.
• B. Inhale the medication slowly while pressing down on the inhaler.
• C. Position the client in a high-Fowler's position.
• D. Increase the oxygen flow rate.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The priority nursing intervention for a client with COPD experiencing shortness of breath is to position the client in a high-Fowler's position. This position helps improve lung expansion and ease breathing by maximizing chest expansion and allowing for better airflow. While administering bronchodilator therapy is important, positioning the client for improved breathing takes priority. Inhaling the medication slowly and pressing down on the inhaler is a correct technique for inhaler use but not the priority intervention. Increasing the oxygen flow rate may be needed, but adjusting the client's position to a high-Fowler's position is the priority to address the shortness of breath in COPD.

4. The nurse is caring for a client who is scheduled for surgery in the morning. The client reports drinking a glass of water at midnight. What should the nurse do?

• A. Notify the anesthesiologist
• B. Document the intake in the medical record
• C. Cancel the surgery
• D. Instruct the client to fast until the surgery

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is to notify the anesthesiologist. When a client reports drinking water close to the time of surgery, it is important to inform the anesthesiologist as it can impact the administration of anesthesia. The anesthesiologist needs this information to make decisions regarding anesthesia administration. Documenting the intake in the medical record is important for documentation purposes, but the immediate action needed is to inform the anesthesiologist. Canceling the surgery is not necessary based solely on the intake of water; the anesthesiologist will determine the appropriate course of action. Instructing the client to fast until the surgery may not be appropriate without consulting the anesthesiologist first, as the situation needs to be assessed by the anesthesia team.

5. The nurse is assessing a client who has been receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) for several days. Which complication should the nurse monitor for?

• A. Hyperglycemia
• B. Hypoglycemia
• C. Hyponatremia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Hypoglycemia. When a client is receiving total parenteral nutrition (TPN) with a high glucose content, the risk of hypoglycemia is significant due to sudden increases in insulin release in response to the glucose load. The nurse should monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia such as shakiness, sweating, palpitations, and confusion. Hyperglycemia (choice A) is not typically a complication of TPN as the high glucose content is more likely to cause hypoglycemia. Hyponatremia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are electrolyte imbalances that can occur in clients receiving TPN, but hypoglycemia is the more common and immediate concern that the nurse should monitor for.

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