HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Exam 1
1. Following an open reduction of the tibia, the nurse notes fresh bleeding on the client's cast. What intervention should the nurse implement?
- A. Assess the client's hemoglobin levels to determine if the client is in shock
- B. Call the surgeon and prepare to take the client back to the operating room
- C. Outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to monitor for changes in bleeding
- D. No action is required as postoperative bleeding can be expected
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the correct intervention is to outline the area with ink and check it every 15 minutes to monitor for changes in bleeding. This approach helps in assessing the extent and progression of the bleeding. Option A is incorrect because assessing hemoglobin levels would not provide immediate information on the ongoing bleeding. Option B is premature without first monitoring the bleeding site. Option D is incorrect because although some postoperative bleeding can be expected, fresh bleeding on the cast warrants immediate monitoring and evaluation.
2. A client vomits 30 minutes after receiving a dose of hydromorphone on the first postoperative day. What initial intervention is best for the practical nurse (PN) to implement?
- A. Obtain a prescription for nasogastric intubation.
- B. Administer a prn dose of ondansetron.
- C. Reduce the next scheduled dose of hydromorphone.
- D. Assess the client's abdomen and bowel sounds.
Correct answer: B
Rationale: In this scenario, the client's vomiting is likely due to the hydromorphone administration, indicating a need for an antiemetic such as ondansetron to address the nausea. Nasogastric intubation (Choice A) is not necessary at this point as the client is vomiting, not experiencing an obstruction. While reducing the dose of hydromorphone (Choice C) may be considered later, the immediate focus should be managing the client's symptoms. Assessing the client's abdomen and bowel sounds (Choice D) can be important but is not the initial priority when addressing the vomiting post hydromorphone administration.
3. A client with peptic ulcer disease is prescribed sucralfate. What is the mechanism of action of this medication?
- A. Neutralizes stomach acid
- B. Decreases gastric acid secretion
- C. Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid
- D. Improves gastric motility
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Covers the ulcer site and protects it from acid. Sucralfate works by forming a protective barrier over ulcers, shielding them from stomach acid and promoting healing. Choice A, neutralizing stomach acid, is incorrect as sucralfate does not neutralize acid but acts as a physical barrier. Choice B, decreasing gastric acid secretion, is not the mechanism of action of sucralfate. Choice D, improving gastric motility, is unrelated to sucralfate's action on peptic ulcers.
4. A 2-year-old child with a diagnosis of atopic dermatitis is being discharged. What should the nurse include in the discharge teaching?
- A. Avoid triggers that cause flare-ups
- B. Apply topical corticosteroids as prescribed
- C. Use a soft toothbrush for oral care
- D. Avoid contact with sick individuals
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is to apply topical corticosteroids as prescribed. Atopic dermatitis is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that can be managed with topical corticosteroids to reduce inflammation and itching. While avoiding triggers that cause flare-ups is important in managing atopic dermatitis, the primary treatment approach involves using prescribed medications like corticosteroids. Using a soft toothbrush for oral care and avoiding contact with sick individuals are not directly related to managing atopic dermatitis and are not the priority discharge teachings in this case.
5. The RN is making a home visit to a female client with end-stage heart disease. She has a living will and states she will never go back to the hospital. During the visit, the RN notes that the client is pale and SOB while speaking. The RN discovers 3+ edema in both ankles and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Which intervention should the RN implement first?
- A. Order a chest X-ray
- B. Obtain a peripheral O2 saturation reading
- C. Obtain an order for complete blood count
- D. Tell the patient to stay in bed
Correct answer: B
Rationale: Obtaining a peripheral O2 saturation reading is the priority intervention in this scenario. It helps assess the client's oxygenation status quickly, which is crucial in a client with signs of respiratory distress, such as shortness of breath and bilateral pulmonary crackles. Ordering a chest X-ray (Choice A) may be necessary later but does not address the immediate need for oxygen assessment. Obtaining an order for a complete blood count (Choice C) is not the priority in this situation as it does not directly address the client's respiratory distress. Instructing the patient to stay in bed (Choice D) does not address the underlying issue of potential hypoxia and respiratory compromise.