Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?

• A. Neutralizes stomach acid
• B. Reduces gastric acid production
• C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
• D. Increases gastric mucus production

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.

2. A client with foul-smelling drainage from an incision on the upper left arm is admitted with a suspected methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). Which nursing interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care? (Select all that apply.)

• A. Send wound drainage for culture and sensitivity.
• B. Institute contact precautions for staff and visitors.
• C. Use standard precautions and wear a mask.
• D. Monitor the client's white blood cell count.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: When dealing with a client suspected of having MRSA, the nurse should implement contact precautions to prevent the spread of infection. This includes using gowns and gloves, along with following proper hand hygiene practices. Sending wound drainage for culture and sensitivity may be necessary for diagnostic purposes, but it is not directly related to preventing the spread of infection in this case. Using standard precautions and wearing a mask are not sufficient when dealing with MRSA; contact precautions are specifically required to prevent transmission. Monitoring the client's white blood cell count is important in assessing infection status but is not a primary intervention to prevent the spread of MRSA.

3. A client with a diagnosis of osteoporosis is prescribed alendronate (Fosamax). What is the most important instruction the nurse should provide?

• A. Take the medication in the morning on an empty stomach.
• B. Take the medication at bedtime.
• C. Remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication.
• D. Take the medication with a full glass of water.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The most important instruction the nurse should provide to a client prescribed alendronate (Fosamax) for osteoporosis is to take the medication with a full glass of water. This is crucial to help prevent esophageal irritation. Option A is correct as alendronate should be taken in the morning on an empty stomach. Option C is incorrect because the client should remain upright for at least 30 minutes after taking the medication, not lie down. Option B is incorrect and a duplicate of Option A.

4. A client has a prescription for enteric-coated (EC) aspirin 325mg PO daily. The medication drawer contains one 325mg aspirin. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin
• B. Instruct the client about the effects of the medication
• C. Administer the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack
• D. Withhold the aspirin until consulting with the healthcare provider

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to contact the pharmacy and request the prescribed form of aspirin. Enteric-coated medications are designed to dissolve in the intestine, not the stomach, to avoid irritation. Therefore, it is essential to ensure the client receives the correct form of aspirin as prescribed. Instructing the client about the effects of the medication (choice B) is not necessary at this point as the issue is related to the form of the aspirin. Administering the aspirin with a full glass of water or a small snack (choice C) is not appropriate as it does not address the need for the correct form of the medication. Withholding the aspirin (choice D) without consulting the healthcare provider is not advisable as it may lead to a delay in the client receiving the necessary medication.

5. After placement of a left subclavian central venous catheter (CVC), the nurse receives a report of the X-ray findings indicating that the CVC tip is in the client's superior vena cava. Which action should the nurse implement?

• A. Remove the catheter and apply direct pressure for 5 minutes.
• B. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
• C. Secure the catheter using aseptic technique.
• D. Notify the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Initiating intravenous fluids as prescribed is the appropriate action when the CVC tip is correctly placed in the superior vena cava. Intravenous fluids can now be administered effectively through the central line. Removing the catheter and applying direct pressure is unnecessary and not indicated as the tip is in the correct position. Securing the catheter using aseptic technique is important for preventing infections but is not the immediate action needed in this situation. Notifying the healthcare provider of the need to reposition the catheter may delay necessary fluid administration, which is the priority at this time.

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