HESI LPN
Adult Health 1 Final Exam
1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?
- A. Neutralizes stomach acid
- B. Reduces gastric acid production
- C. Forms a protective barrier over ulcers
- D. Increases gastric mucus production
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.
2. A client with a cast complains of numbness and tingling in the affected limb. What should the nurse do first?
- A. Check for tightness of the cast
- B. Elevate the limb
- C. Apply ice to the area
- D. Notify the physician
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for a client with a cast experiencing numbness and tingling in the affected limb is to check for tightness of the cast. Numbness and tingling can indicate compromised circulation, and a tight cast may be causing this. Checking the cast for tightness is essential to ensure it is not impeding circulation. Elevating the limb, applying ice, or notifying the physician can be subsequent actions depending on the assessment findings after checking the cast. Elevating the limb might help improve circulation, applying ice is not indicated for numbness and tingling, and notifying the physician can be done if the issue persists after addressing the immediate concern of cast tightness.
3. The nurse is caring for a client with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction (MI). Which intervention is a priority during the acute phase?
- A. Administer morphine for pain relief.
- B. Encourage the client to perform isometric exercises.
- C. Position the client flat in bed.
- D. Restrict fluid intake.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Administering morphine is a priority intervention during the acute phase of myocardial infarction (MI). Morphine not only provides pain relief but also reduces myocardial oxygen demand, which is crucial in this situation. Choice B is incorrect because isometric exercises can increase myocardial oxygen demand and are not recommended during the acute phase of MI. Choice C is incorrect as elevating the head of the bed, not keeping the client flat, is preferred to reduce workload on the heart. Choice D is incorrect because fluid intake should be encouraged unless contraindicated, as adequate hydration is essential for cardiac function.
4. What is the primary function of neutrophils?
- A. Heparin secretion
- B. Transport oxygen
- C. Phagocytotic action
- D. Antibody formation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Phagocytotic action. Neutrophils are key components of the immune system, primarily involved in the phagocytosis of bacteria and other pathogens. Choice A, Heparin secretion, is incorrect as heparin is primarily secreted by mast cells and basophils. Choice B, Transport oxygen, is incorrect as this is mainly the function of red blood cells. Choice D, Antibody formation, is incorrect as antibody production is primarily carried out by B lymphocytes.
5. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?
- A. Possible exposure to an environmental staphylococcus infection can infect the newborn's eyes and cause visual deficits
- B. The newborn is at risk for blindness from a corneal syphilitic infection acquired from a mother's infected vagina
- C. Treatment prevents tear duct obstruction with harmful exudate from a vaginal birth that can lead to dry eyes in the newborn
- D. State law mandates all newborns receive prophylactic treatment to prevent gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection
Correct answer: D
Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.
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