a client with a history of peptic ulcer disease pud is prescribed omeprazole prilosec what is the primary action of this medication
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

Adult Health 1 Final Exam

1. A client with a history of peptic ulcer disease (PUD) is prescribed omeprazole (Prilosec). What is the primary action of this medication?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Reduces gastric acid production. Omeprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that works by reducing gastric acid production, thereby helping to heal ulcers. While neutralizing stomach acid is associated with antacids, forming a protective barrier over ulcers is more characteristic of medications like sucralfate. The action described in choice D, increasing gastric mucus production, is not the primary mechanism of action of omeprazole in treating peptic ulcer disease.

2. The client is being taught about managing chronic kidney disease (CKD). Which dietary restriction should be emphasized the most?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Restricting protein intake is vital in managing chronic kidney disease (CKD) as it helps decrease the kidneys' workload and slows down disease progression. High-fiber foods are generally beneficial for health and should not be limited in CKD management. Dairy products can be consumed moderately unless contraindicated. While adequate fluid intake is crucial, increasing intake excessively may not be suitable for all CKD patients, especially those with fluid restrictions. Therefore, the most crucial dietary restriction to emphasize in CKD management is restricting protein intake.

3. A client is admitted to the hospital with second and third degree burns to the face and neck. How should the nurse best position the client to maximize function of the neck and face and prevent contracture?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: After sustaining burns to the face and neck, positioning is crucial to maintain functional posture, reduce pain, and prevent contractures. Placing the neck forward using pillows under the head and sandbags on both sides is the best option in this scenario. This position helps prevent neck and facial contractures, allowing for optimal function and healing. Choices A, B, and C do not adequately address the specific needs of a client with burns to the face and neck. Choice A could potentially exacerbate neck contractures, Choice B focuses on arm support rather than neck and face positioning, and Choice C does not directly address the needs of the burned face and neck, making them less effective in preventing contractures in these critical areas.

4. A client with a history of pulmonary embolism is on anticoagulant therapy. What should the nurse monitor regularly?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Correct! Monitoring INR is essential in clients on anticoagulant therapy to ensure the blood's clotting time is within the therapeutic range, preventing further embolic events or excessive bleeding. Monitoring blood glucose levels (Choice B), blood pressure (Choice C), and temperature (Choice D) is important for various other conditions but is not directly related to anticoagulant therapy for a client with a history of pulmonary embolism.

5. A new father asks the nurse the reason for placing an ophthalmic ointment in his newborn's eyes. What information should the nurse provide?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D because informing about state law emphasizes the legal requirement and public health rationale behind prophylactic eye treatment to prevent serious infections like gonorrheal or chlamydial ophthalmic infection. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Choice A focuses on staphylococcus infection, which is not the primary concern addressed by the prophylactic ointment. Choice B mentions a specific infection acquired from the mother's infected vagina, which is not the main reason for the ophthalmic ointment. Choice C discusses tear duct obstruction and dry eyes, which are not the primary concerns addressed by the prophylactic ointment.

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