Nursing Elites

1. A client with a diagnosis of bipolar disorder is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Rash
• B. Tremors
• C. Hair loss
• D. Weight gain

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Rash. Lamotrigine can cause a rash, which may indicate a serious adverse effect like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for a rash is crucial in clients taking lamotrigine to promptly address any potential severe reactions.

2. A client arrives at the emergency department experiencing diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). The healthcare provider prescribes an insulin intravenous drip. Which type of insulin should the nurse locate for the registered nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids?

• A. Isophane
• B. Glargine
• C. Regular
• D. Detemir

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct insulin type for the nurse to mix into the intravenous fluids is regular insulin. In the scenario of diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA), rapid reduction of blood glucose levels is crucial. Regular insulin has a fast onset of action, making it suitable for intravenous administration to address the high blood sugar levels seen in DKA. Isophane, Glargine, and Detemir are not appropriate choices for intravenous administration in this emergency situation as they are intermediate-acting or long-acting insulins which do not provide the rapid response needed in DKA.

3. A client has been taking simvastatin for 3 days and calls the nurse at the clinic to report extreme muscle tenderness and pain. Which is the most appropriate action?

• A. Notify the health care provider.
• B. Review the medication with the client.
• C. Advise the client to avoid grapefruit juice.
• D. Remind the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Extreme muscle tenderness and pain in a client taking simvastatin could indicate rhabdomyolysis, a serious condition. Promptly notifying the health care provider is crucial to evaluate and manage this potential medical emergency. Reviewing the medication with the client may not address the urgency of the situation. Advising the client to avoid grapefruit juice is not directly related to the client's current symptoms. Reminding the client to limit physical activity until evaluated by the health care provider is not appropriate as the client's symptoms should be assessed by a professional first.

4. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed citalopram. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Drowsiness
• C. Insomnia
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of citalopram is nausea. Citalopram can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as nausea, so clients should be advised to take the medication with food if nausea occurs to help minimize this side effect. While other side effects like drowsiness, insomnia, and headache may also occur with citalopram, nausea is a common side effect that clients should be informed about. Drowsiness and insomnia are more commonly associated with other medications used to treat anxiety or depression, such as benzodiazepines or certain antidepressants. Headache is a less common side effect of citalopram compared to nausea.

5. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed risperidone. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Weight gain
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed risperidone, it is essential to monitor for potential side effects. Weight gain is a common side effect of risperidone, so the nurse should closely monitor the client's weight throughout the treatment. This monitoring helps in early detection of weight changes and allows for timely interventions to prevent further complications.

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