a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed empagliflozin the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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HESI LPN

Pharmacology HESI Practice

1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed empagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Empagliflozin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This is due to its mechanism of action, which involves promoting the excretion of glucose through urine, creating a more favorable environment for fungal or bacterial growth in the genital area. Choices B and C, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, are less likely adverse effects of empagliflozin. Empagliflozin actually carries a low risk of causing hypoglycemia since it works independently of insulin. Nausea (Choice D) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of empagliflozin, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.

2. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works to prevent blood clots, but it can also increase the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, prolonged bleeding from cuts, blood in urine or stool, or unusual bleeding from the gums. Prompt identification and management of bleeding are crucial to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while bruising and other symptoms can occur as a result of bleeding, they are not the primary side effect to monitor for with clopidogrel. Nausea and headache are less commonly associated with clopidogrel use compared to bleeding.

3. When should a client receiving insulin lispro administer this medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that should be administered shortly before meals. This timing helps to synchronize the peak action of insulin with the rise in blood glucose levels after eating, effectively managing blood glucose levels in the body.

4. A client with major depressive disorder is prescribed bupropion. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because bupropion is associated with weight loss rather than weight gain. It is important for the client to be aware of this potential side effect. Choice B is correct because bupropion may take several weeks to exhibit its full therapeutic effects. Choice C is also accurate as alcohol consumption should be avoided while taking bupropion due to the risk of seizures. Choice D is correct as taking bupropion in the morning with food can help reduce the risk of gastrointestinal side effects.

5. The patient is prescribed cimetidine (Tagamet) orally. What should the nurse consider about administering this drug?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Cimetidine is best absorbed when taken 30 minutes before meals to decrease stomach acid. Administering it before meals allows for optimal absorption and effectiveness of the medication. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because administering cimetidine with food, immediately after meals, or 30 minutes after meals may not provide the best conditions for absorption. Taking it before meals ensures that the drug is absorbed properly and can exert its intended effects.

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