HESI LPN
Pharmacology HESI Practice
1. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed empagliflozin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Genital infections
- B. Hypoglycemia
- C. Hyperglycemia
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A: Genital infections. Empagliflozin, a medication commonly used to treat type 2 diabetes, is associated with an increased risk of genital infections. This is due to its mechanism of action, which involves promoting the excretion of glucose through urine, creating a more favorable environment for fungal or bacterial growth in the genital area. Choices B and C, hypoglycemia and hyperglycemia, are less likely adverse effects of empagliflozin. Empagliflozin actually carries a low risk of causing hypoglycemia since it works independently of insulin. Nausea (Choice D) is not a commonly reported adverse effect of empagliflozin, making it an incorrect choice in this scenario.
2. A client is admitted to a long-term care facility, and the nurse and a new employee are conducting medication reconciliation. The nurse notes that oxybutynin has been prescribed. The nurse realizes the new employee understands the drug's effect if the new employee explains that this medication is prescribed to treat which condition?
- A. Pain
- B. Depression
- C. Overactive bladder
- D. Chronic anxiety
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct answer is C: Overactive bladder. Oxybutynin is prescribed to treat overactive bladder by reducing muscle spasms of the bladder. It is classified as an anticholinergic medication. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Oxycodone is an opioid used for pain management. Bupropion is an antidepressant used to treat depression. Buspirone is an anxiolytic used to manage anxiety disorders.
3. A 2-week-old infant is admitted with a tentative diagnosis of a ventricular septal defect. The parents report that their baby has had difficulty feeding since coming home after birth. What should the nurse consider before responding?
- A. Feeding problems are common in neonates.
- B. Inadequate sucking is not significant in the absence of cyanosis.
- C. Ineffective sucking and swallowing may be early indications of a heart defect.
- D. Many neonates retain mucus, which may interfere with feeding for several weeks.
Correct answer: C
Rationale: In this scenario, the nurse should consider that ineffective sucking and swallowing in a 2-week-old infant could be early signs of a heart defect such as a ventricular septal defect. This is crucial information as it can guide further assessment and management. Choice A is incorrect because while feeding problems can be common in neonates, in this case, the specific context of a suspected heart defect should be prioritized. Choice B is incorrect as inadequate sucking can indeed be significant, especially when considering potential underlying heart issues, regardless of the presence of cyanosis. Choice D is incorrect as while mucus retention can affect feeding, in this case, the focus should be on the possibility of a heart defect rather than a temporary issue like mucus interference.
4. The LPN/LVN observes that a male client has removed the covering from an ice pack applied to his knee. What action should the nurse take first?
- A. Observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack.
- B. Instruct the client regarding the importance of the covering.
- C. Reapply the covering after filling it with fresh ice.
- D. Ask the client how long the ice pack was applied to the skin.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct first action for the nurse to take when a client removes the covering from an ice pack is to observe the appearance of the skin under the ice pack. This assessment is crucial to check for any skin damage or adverse reactions resulting from direct contact with the ice pack. Instructing the client about the importance of the covering (Choice B) can follow the skin assessment. Reapplying the covering (Choice C) before skin assessment may potentially cause harm. Asking the client about the duration of ice application (Choice D) is not the immediate priority; ensuring skin integrity is the primary concern.
5. A healthcare professional is reviewing the medical record of a client who has hypocalcemia. The healthcare professional should identify which of the following findings as a risk factor for the development of this electrolyte imbalance?
- A. Crohn’s disease
- B. Postoperative status following appendectomy
- C. History of bone cancer
- D. Hyperthyroidism
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Crohn’s disease is known to impair calcium absorption, which can lead to hypocalcemia. This condition affects the intestines and can disrupt the normal absorption of nutrients, including calcium. Postoperative status following appendectomy, history of bone cancer, and hyperthyroidism are typically not directly associated with a higher risk of developing hypocalcemia compared to Crohn’s disease.