Nursing Elites

1. A client tells the nurse that she thinks she's pregnant. Which signs or symptoms provide the best indication that the client is pregnant?

• A. Morning sickness.
• B. Breast tenderness.
• C. Amenorrhea.
• D. Hegar's sign.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hegar's sign, which is a softening of the lower uterine segment, is considered a probable sign of pregnancy as it indicates changes in the cervix and uterus that occur during pregnancy. Amenorrhea, the absence of menstruation, is a common early sign of pregnancy but can also be due to other factors. Morning sickness, nausea and vomiting, can be a sign of early pregnancy but is not as specific as Hegar's sign. Breast tenderness is a common symptom in early pregnancy due to hormonal changes, but it is not as definitive as Hegar's sign in indicating pregnancy.

2. A client at 34 weeks gestation comes to the birthing center complaining of vaginal bleeding that began one hour ago. The nurse's assessment reveals approximately 30ML of bright red vaginal bleeding, fetal heart rate of 130 - 140 beats per minute, no contractions, and no complaints of pain. What is the most likely cause of this client's bleeding?

• A. Abruptio Placenta
• B. Placenta Previa
• C. Normal bloody show indicating induction of labor
• D. A ruptured blood vessel in the vaginal vault

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Placenta previa, a condition where the placenta covers the cervix, can cause painless, bright red vaginal bleeding in the third trimester. In this scenario, the absence of contractions and pain, along with the presence of significant bright red bleeding, is more indicative of placenta previa rather than abruptio placenta or a ruptured vessel. A normal bloody show typically occurs closer to the onset of labor and is not associated with the amount of bleeding described in the question.

3. A woman has experienced iron deficiency anemia during her pregnancy. She had been taking iron for 3 months before the birth. The client gave birth by cesarean 2 days earlier and has been having problems with constipation. After assisting her back to bed from the bathroom, the nurse notes that the woman’s stools are dark (greenish-black). What should the nurse’s initial action be?

• A. Perform a guaiac test and record the results.
• B. Recognize the finding as abnormal and report it to the primary health care provider.
• C. Recognize the finding as a normal result of iron therapy.
• D. Check the woman’s next stool to validate the observation.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should recognize that dark stools are a common side effect in clients who are taking iron replacement therapy. Dark stools are a known, expected result of iron supplementation and are not indicative of a complication unless other symptoms of GI bleeding are present. A guaiac test would be necessary if there were concerns about gastrointestinal bleeding. Recognizing dark stools as a consequence of iron therapy is an essential nursing assessment skill and does not require immediate reporting. Checking the next stool to confirm the observation is unnecessary as the presence of dark stools in this context is already an expected outcome of iron supplementation.

4. The mother of a breastfeeding 24-hour old infant is very concerned about the techniques involved in breastfeeding. She calls the nurse with each feeding to seek reassurance that she is doing it right. She tells the nurse, "Now my daughter is not getting enough to eat." Which response would be best for the nurse to make?

• A. Feed your baby hourly until you feel confident that your child is receiving enough milk.
• B. Don't worry, soon your milk will come in, and you will feel how full your breasts are.
• C. Since you are so concerned, you should probably supplement breastfeeding with formula.
• D. If your baby's urine is straw-colored, she's getting enough milk.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Reassuring the mother that the baby's urine color can be an indicator of adequate hydration can help her feel more confident in her breastfeeding.

5. In the Ballard Gestational Age Assessment Tool, the nurse determines that a 15-month-old infant has a gestational age of 42 weeks. Based on this finding, which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement?

• A. Provide blow-by oxygen
• B. Provide a capillary blood glucose test
• C. Draw arterial blood gases
• D. Apply a pulse oximeter to the foot

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Late preterm infants, such as those with a gestational age of 42 weeks, are at higher risk for hypoglycemia due to immature metabolic regulation. Monitoring capillary blood glucose is crucial to detect and manage hypoglycemia promptly. Providing blow-by oxygen (Choice A) is not indicated for an infant at risk for hypoglycemia. Drawing arterial blood gases (Choice C) is not the primary intervention for assessing hypoglycemia. Applying a pulse oximeter to the foot (Choice D) is not directly related to monitoring blood glucose levels in this context.

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