Nursing Elites

1. The client is receiving discharge instructions for warfarin (Coumadin). Which statement by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

• A. I will avoid eating foods high in vitamin K.
• B. I will have my blood tested regularly to monitor my INR levels.
• C. I will take the medication at the same time every day.
• D. I will use a soft toothbrush to prevent bleeding gums.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients taking warfarin need to be consistent with their vitamin K intake to maintain a balance in blood clotting. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is essential as they can interfere with the medication's effectiveness. Choices B, C, and D are all correct statements regarding warfarin therapy. Regular blood testing to monitor INR levels ensures the medication is working effectively, taking the medication at the same time daily maintains a consistent level in the bloodstream, and using a soft toothbrush helps prevent gum bleeding due to warfarin's anticoagulant effects.

2. When evaluating a client's plan of care, the LPN determines that a desired outcome was not achieved. Which action will the LPN implement first?

• A. Establish a new nursing diagnosis.
• B. Note which actions were not implemented.
• C. Add additional nursing orders to the plan.
• D. Collaborate with the healthcare provider to make changes.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct first action for the LPN to take when a desired outcome is not achieved is to note which actions were not implemented. This step helps in identifying gaps in the plan of care and reasons for not achieving the desired outcome. Establishing a new nursing diagnosis (Choice A) is not the initial step when evaluating the plan of care. Adding additional nursing orders (Choice C) may not address the root cause of the unachieved outcome. Collaborating with the healthcare provider (Choice D) should come after identifying the gaps in the plan and reasons for the outcome not being met.

3. What is the most important assessment for the LPN/LVN to perform on a client with a history of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) receiving oxygen therapy at 2 liters per minute via nasal cannula?

• A. Assess the client's respiratory rate and effort.
• B. Measure the client's oxygen saturation level.
• C. Monitor the client's arterial blood gas levels.
• D. Check the client's blood pressure.

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Measuring the client's oxygen saturation level is the most important assessment in this scenario. Oxygen saturation level reflects how well the client is oxygenating, which is crucial in assessing the effectiveness of oxygen therapy for a client with COPD. Monitoring the respiratory rate and effort (Choice A) is important but assessing oxygenation with saturation levels takes precedence. While arterial blood gas levels (Choice C) provide comprehensive information, checking oxygen saturation is a quicker and more immediate way to assess oxygenation status. Checking blood pressure (Choice D) is not the priority when evaluating the effectiveness of oxygen therapy in COPD.

4. A healthcare professional is caring for a client who has a new prescription for antihypertensive medication. Prior to administering the medication, the healthcare professional uses an electronic database to gather information about the medication and the effects it might have on this client. Which of the following components of critical thinking is the healthcare professional using when reviewing the medication information?

• A. Knowledge
• B. Experience
• C. Intuition
• D. Competence

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Knowledge. In this scenario, the healthcare professional is utilizing knowledge by gathering and applying information about the medication. Choice B, Experience, is not the best option as the focus is on accessing information about the medication rather than personal experience. Choice C, Intuition, refers to a gut feeling or instinct, which is not evident in the scenario. Choice D, Competence, relates more to overall ability and proficiency rather than the specific act of seeking information.

5. A healthcare provider is monitoring a client for adverse effects following the administration of an opioid. Which of the following effects should the provider identify as an adverse effect of opioids?

• A. Urinary incontinence
• B. Diarrhea
• C. Bradypnea
• D. Orthostatic hypotension

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Orthostatic hypotension. Opioids can cause orthostatic hypotension, leading to a sudden drop in blood pressure when changing positions. This effect is due to the vasodilatory properties of opioids, which can result in decreased blood flow to the brain upon standing up. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect. Urinary incontinence and diarrhea are not typical adverse effects of opioids. Bradypnea, or slow breathing, is a potential side effect of opioid overdose or respiratory depression, but it is not a common adverse effect following normal opioid administration.

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