Nursing Elites

1. A client is to receive cimetidine (Tagamet) 300 mg q6h IVP. The preparation arrives from the pharmacy diluted in 50 ml of 0.9% NaCl. The LPN plans to administer the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. For how many ml/hr should the infusion pump be set to deliver the secondary infusion?

• A. 150
• B. 50
• C. 100
• D. 75

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Setting the infusion pump to 150 ml/hr ensures the correct administration rate of the IVPB dose over 20 minutes. To calculate the infusion rate, consider that the total volume to be infused is 50 ml over 20 minutes. To convert this to ml/hr, the calculation is (50 ml / 20 minutes) x 60 minutes/hr = 150 ml/hr. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect as they do not reflect the correct calculation for the infusion rate needed to deliver the secondary infusion over the specified time.

2. A nurse offers pain medication to a client who is postoperative before ambulation. The nurse understands that this aspect of care delivery is an example of which of the following ethical principles?

• A. Fidelity
• B. Autonomy
• C. Justice
• D. Beneficence

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Beneficence. Beneficence involves actions intended to benefit the client, such as providing pain relief. In this scenario, the nurse is demonstrating beneficence by offering pain medication to alleviate the client's discomfort and promote their well-being. Fidelity (A) relates to being faithful to agreements and commitments, autonomy (B) refers to respecting a client's right to make decisions about their care, and justice (C) involves fairness and equal treatment. While these ethical principles are important in healthcare, the situation described primarily exemplifies the principle of beneficence.

3. The healthcare provider is assessing a client with a diagnosis of asthma. Which assessment finding would be most concerning?

• A. Wheezing
• B. Shortness of breath
• C. Use of accessory muscles
• D. Cough with sputum production

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The most concerning assessment finding in a client with asthma is the use of accessory muscles. This indicates that the client is working harder to breathe, which could signify respiratory distress. Wheezing, choice A, is a common finding in asthma and indicates narrowed airways but may not necessarily imply immediate distress. Shortness of breath, choice B, is also common in asthma but may not be as concerning as the use of accessory muscles. Cough with sputum production, choice D, can occur in asthma exacerbations but may not be as critical as signs of increased work of breathing like the use of accessory muscles.

4. A nurse is discussing the care of a group of clients with a newly licensed nurse. Which of the following clients should the newly licensed nurse identify as experiencing chronic pain?

• A. A client who has a broken femur and reports hip pain.
• B. A client who has incisional pain 72 hours following pacemaker insertion.
• C. A client who has food poisoning and reports abdominal cramping.
• D. A client who has episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Chronic pain is typically defined as pain lasting longer than 3-6 months or persisting after the expected time for tissue healing. Episodic back pain following a fall 2 years ago fits the criteria for chronic pain. Option A describes acute pain related to a recent fracture. Option B describes acute postoperative pain. Option C describes acute pain associated with an acute condition (food poisoning). Therefore, the correct identification of a client experiencing chronic pain is the one with episodic back pain from a past injury, as it has lasted beyond the normal healing time.

5. A healthcare provider is providing teaching about health promotion guidelines to a group of young adult male clients. Which of the following guidelines should the healthcare provider include?

• A. Obtain a tetanus booster every 5 years.
• B. Obtain a herpes zoster immunization by age 50.
• C. Have a dental examination every 6 months.
• D. Have a testicular examination every 2 years.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Having a dental examination every 6 months is crucial for young adult males as it helps in maintaining good oral health and detecting any potential issues early on. Tetanus booster every 10 years is recommended for adults, not every 5 years (Choice A). Herpes zoster immunization is typically recommended for individuals aged 60 and older, not by age 50 (Choice B). While testicular self-examination is important for detecting testicular cancer, routine clinical testicular examinations are not generally needed every 2 years (Choice D). Therefore, the correct answer is to have a dental examination every 6 months.

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