Nursing Elites

1. A client is receiving heparin to treat a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse should monitor which laboratory result to assist in evaluating the efficacy of the drug?

• A. Platelet count
• B. Prothrombin time
• C. Partial thromboplastin time
• D. Serum levels of protamine sulfate

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The nurse should monitor the partial thromboplastin time to evaluate the efficacy of heparin. Partial thromboplastin time reflects the anticoagulant effect of heparin by measuring the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and is not specific to heparin efficacy. Prothrombin time is used to monitor warfarin therapy. Serum levels of protamine sulfate are not used to evaluate the efficacy of heparin.

2. A client with a history of chronic kidney disease is prescribed epoetin alfa. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Hypotension
• C. Hyperglycemia
• D. Tachycardia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypertension. Epoetin alfa can lead to hypertension as an adverse effect because it stimulates increased red blood cell production. This can result in elevated blood pressure levels, requiring careful monitoring by the nurse to prevent complications. Choice B, hypotension, is incorrect because epoetin alfa is more likely to cause hypertension rather than hypotension. Choice C, hyperglycemia, and Choice D, tachycardia, are also incorrect as they are not commonly associated with the use of epoetin alfa.

3. A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed ipratropium. The nurse should assess the client for which potential side effect?

• A. Nausea
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Cough
• D. Palpitations

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Dry mouth. Ipratropium can cause dry mouth as a common side effect due to its anticholinergic effects. Anticholinergic medications like ipratropium can lead to decreased salivary flow, resulting in dry mouth. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect because nausea, cough, and palpitations are not commonly associated with ipratropium use.

4. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Dry mouth
• B. Weight gain
• C. Headache
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Headache. Dabigatran, an anticoagulant, can cause headache as a potential side effect. Headache is important to monitor as it may indicate adverse effects or complications that need attention. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because dry mouth, weight gain, and dizziness are not commonly associated with dabigatran use.

5. A client who is prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension calls the clinic for advice. Which condition should the practical nurse notify the health care provider immediately and instruct the client to stop taking the medication?

• A. The client is experiencing vision and hearing loss.
• B. The client has an erection lasting longer than 4 hours.
• C. The client is complaining of nasal congestion.
• D. The client is complaining of feeling flushed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. If a client prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension experiences vision and/or hearing loss or an erection lasting more than 4 hours, the practical nurse should instruct the client to discontinue the medication immediately and notify the health care provider. These symptoms could indicate serious side effects that require prompt medical attention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an erection lasting more than 2 hours (not 4 hours as stated in choice B) is a critical adverse effect that warrants immediate medical attention. Nasal congestion (choice C) and feeling flushed (choice D) are common side effects of sildenafil and typically do not necessitate immediate discontinuation of the medication or emergency intervention.

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