HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client is receiving heparin to treat a deep vein thrombosis. The nurse should monitor which laboratory result to assist in evaluating the efficacy of the drug?
- A. Platelet count
- B. Prothrombin time
- C. Partial thromboplastin time
- D. Serum levels of protamine sulfate
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should monitor the partial thromboplastin time to evaluate the efficacy of heparin. Partial thromboplastin time reflects the anticoagulant effect of heparin by measuring the intrinsic pathway of coagulation. Platelet count assesses platelet levels and is not specific to heparin efficacy. Prothrombin time is used to monitor warfarin therapy. Serum levels of protamine sulfate are not used to evaluate the efficacy of heparin.
2. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed dabigatran. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Weight gain
- C. Headache
- D. Nausea
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Dabigatran is an anticoagulant that increases the risk of bleeding. Therefore, the nurse should closely monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in the urine or stool, prolonged bleeding from cuts, or nosebleeds, to ensure early detection and intervention.
3. When planning to administer the antiulcer GI agent sucralfate, what instruction should the nurse provide regarding administration?
- A. Administer sucralfate once a day
- B. Assess for secondary candida infection
- C. Monitor electrolyte imbalance
- D. Give sucralfate on an empty stomach
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Sucralfate is most effective when taken on an empty stomach. This allows the medication to form a protective layer over the ulcer, promoting healing and symptom relief. Administering sucralfate with or after meals may reduce its efficacy as it may bind to food instead of coating the ulcer site.
4. A male client receives a scopolamine transdermal patch 2 hours before surgery. Four hours after surgery, the client tells the nurse that he is experiencing pain and asks why the patch is not working. Which action should the nurse take?
- A. Advise the client that the effects of the medication have worn off
- B. Explain that the medication is not given to relieve pain
- C. Check for the correct placement of the patch on the client
- D. Offer to apply a new transdermal patch to address the pain
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Scopolamine is not a pain medication; it is commonly used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly in surgical settings. It works on the central nervous system to help control these symptoms, not to relieve pain. Therefore, it is important for the nurse to explain to the client that the medication is not intended to relieve pain but rather to manage other specific symptoms. Checking the correct placement of the patch is also important to ensure proper administration, but addressing the misconception about the medication's purpose is the priority in this scenario. Offering to apply a new patch would not address the client's pain as scopolamine is not meant for pain relief. Advising the client that the effects have worn off is inaccurate because the medication is not used for pain management.
5. A client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Bleeding
- B. Weight gain
- C. Nausea
- D. Headache
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client with a history of stroke is prescribed clopidogrel, the nurse should monitor for potential side effects, especially bleeding. Clopidogrel is an antiplatelet medication that works by preventing blood clots. One of the major risks associated with clopidogrel is an increased tendency to bleed. Therefore, monitoring for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, blood in stool or urine, or prolonged bleeding from minor cuts, is crucial to ensure patient safety and early intervention if needed.
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