Nursing Elites

1. A client who is being discharged to home asks the practical nurse (PN) for a dose of hydrocodone before leaving the hospital. How should the PN respond to this client's request?

• A. Determine if a take-home prescription for hydrocodone was provided and, if so, tell him to take one of them.
• B. Encourage him to wait until he is at home to take a medication that might impair reasoning.
• C. Give him a tablet from the hospital stock and tell him to wait until he is almost home to take it.
• D. Ask him to describe the location and severity of the pain and to rate it on a scale from 1 to 10.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrocodone is a narcotic analgesic, and the practical nurse should gather more data from the client about the pain he is experiencing before giving the medication. The client's need for pain medication should be addressed, and pain medication should not be withheld because he is going home.

2. What instruction should the nurse include in the teaching plan for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer?

• A. Take this medication in the morning before breakfast.
• B. Take this medication with meals.
• C. Avoid taking this medication with antacids.
• D. Take this medication at bedtime.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction for a client prescribed ranitidine for a peptic ulcer is to take the medication in the morning before breakfast. This timing helps reduce stomach acid production throughout the day, providing optimal therapeutic effects. Option B is incorrect because taking ranitidine with meals is not the recommended timing. Option C is incorrect as there is no specific contraindication against taking ranitidine with antacids. Option D is incorrect as the medication should not be taken at bedtime but rather in the morning before breakfast.

3. A client with a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder is prescribed buspirone. The nurse should instruct the client that this medication may have which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Dry mouth
• C. Nausea
• D. Headache

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct potential side effect of buspirone is drowsiness. It is important for clients to be informed about this side effect, as it can affect their ability to perform tasks that require full alertness, such as driving. Clients should be advised to avoid activities that require mental alertness until they know how the medication affects them. Dry mouth is a common side effect of some other medications used for anxiety, such as benzodiazepines. Nausea and headache are not typically associated with buspirone use.

4. Prior to administration of the initial dose of the GI agent misoprostol, which information should the nurse obtain from the client?

• A. Taking an anti-emetic medication
• B. History of glaucoma
• C. Currently pregnant
• D. Allergy to aspirin

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. It is crucial for the nurse to obtain information regarding the client's pregnancy status before administering misoprostol, as this medication is contraindicated in pregnancy due to its potential to cause uterine contractions. This can lead to serious complications such as miscarriage or premature birth. Therefore, assessing whether the client is currently pregnant is essential to ensure the safe administration of misoprostol. Choices A, B, and D are not directly related to the administration of misoprostol. While knowing if the client is taking an anti-emetic medication may be relevant to prevent drug interactions, a history of glaucoma and allergy to aspirin are not primary concerns before administering misoprostol.

5. A client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Hypercalcemia
• B. Hypocalcemia
• C. Hyperkalemia
• D. Hypokalemia

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client with chronic kidney disease is prescribed sevelamer carbonate, the nurse should monitor for hypercalcemia as a potential side effect. Sevelamer carbonate can bind to dietary calcium and impair its absorption, potentially leading to elevated calcium levels in the blood. Monitoring calcium levels is crucial to detect and manage hypercalcemia promptly. Hypocalcemia (choice B) is incorrect because sevelamer carbonate's action is more likely to cause elevated calcium levels. Hyperkalemia (choice C) and hypokalemia (choice D) are related to potassium levels and are not typically associated with sevelamer carbonate use.

Similar Questions