Nursing Elites

1. A client who is being discharged to home asks the practical nurse (PN) for a dose of hydrocodone before leaving the hospital. How should the PN respond to this client's request?

• A. Determine if a take-home prescription for hydrocodone was provided and, if so, tell him to take one of them.
• B. Encourage him to wait until he is at home to take a medication that might impair reasoning.
• C. Give him a tablet from the hospital stock and tell him to wait until he is almost home to take it.
• D. Ask him to describe the location and severity of the pain and to rate it on a scale from 1 to 10.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Hydrocodone is a narcotic analgesic, and the practical nurse should gather more data from the client about the pain he is experiencing before giving the medication. The client's need for pain medication should be addressed, and pain medication should not be withheld because he is going home.

2. A client is prescribed phenytoin for the management of seizures. What instruction should the practical nurse provide to the client regarding this medication?

• A. Take the medication at the same time every day.
• B. Discontinue the medication if a rash develops.
• C. Avoid consuming dairy products.
• D. Monitor blood pressure regularly.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct instruction the practical nurse should provide to the client regarding phenytoin is to take the medication at the same time every day. This consistency helps maintain a steady level of the medication in the bloodstream, which is crucial for effectively managing seizures. It is important for clients to adhere to their prescribed dosing schedule to optimize the therapeutic benefits of phenytoin. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because discontinuing the medication without healthcare provider guidance can be dangerous, there is no specific interaction between phenytoin and dairy products, and monitoring blood pressure is not a primary concern with phenytoin therapy for seizures.

3. A client receiving enalapril reports a persistent dry cough. The nurse should explain that this side effect is related to which medication action?

• A. It reduces the production of angiotensin II.
• B. It increases the production of angiotensin II.
• C. It causes increased production of bradykinin.
• D. It increases the production of aldosterone.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Enalapril, an ACE inhibitor, inhibits the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to increased levels of bradykinin. The accumulation of bradykinin is responsible for the persistent dry cough associated with ACE inhibitors like enalapril. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect because enalapril does not directly affect the production of angiotensin II or aldosterone. Instead, it primarily impacts the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system by inhibiting the conversion of angiotensin I to angiotensin II, leading to bradykinin accumulation.

4. A client is prescribed phenobarbital 100 mg daily for the treatment of seizures. Which statement made by the client indicates an accurate understanding of the medication phenobarbital?

• A. I will take my medicine at 10 PM before retiring to bed.
• B. The medication will turn the color of my urine to a pink color.
• C. I should not eat or drink anything for at least 2 hours before taking my medicine.
• D. In the event a seizure occurs in the middle of the day, I need to take an extra dose of my medicine.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Phenobarbital should be taken at the same time every day to maintain blood levels and enhance compliance. Common side effects of phenobarbital include drowsiness, lethargy, dizziness, and nausea; therefore, it is best to take it before bedtime to minimize these effects and improve sleep quality. Choice B is incorrect because phenobarbital does not affect the color of urine. Choice C is incorrect because there is no need to fast before taking phenobarbital. Choice D is incorrect because taking extra doses without healthcare provider guidance can lead to overdose and adverse effects.

5. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?

• A. Midway through administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next
• D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.

Similar Questions