a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

2. A client with a history of heart failure is prescribed carvedilol. The nurse should monitor the client for which adverse effect?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D: Hypotension. Carvedilol, a beta-blocker, can lead to hypotension by blocking the effects of adrenaline, which can cause blood vessels to dilate and reduce blood pressure. While dizziness upon standing is a potential adverse effect of carvedilol, it is more specifically related to orthostatic hypotension, which is a form of hypotension that occurs when a person stands up from a sitting or lying position. Weight loss and bradycardia are not typically associated with carvedilol use. Therefore, the nurse should primarily monitor for hypotension in a client taking carvedilol.

3. A client who is prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension calls the clinic for advice. Which condition should the practical nurse notify the health care provider immediately and instruct the client to stop taking the medication?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. If a client prescribed sildenafil for pulmonary hypertension experiences vision and/or hearing loss or an erection lasting more than 4 hours, the practical nurse should instruct the client to discontinue the medication immediately and notify the health care provider. These symptoms could indicate serious side effects that require prompt medical attention to prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because an erection lasting more than 2 hours (not 4 hours as stated in choice B) is a critical adverse effect that warrants immediate medical attention. Nasal congestion (choice C) and feeling flushed (choice D) are common side effects of sildenafil and typically do not necessitate immediate discontinuation of the medication or emergency intervention.

4. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed sotalol. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Sotalol, a medication used for atrial fibrillation, is known to cause bradycardia, which is a slower than normal heart rate. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to detect and manage this potential side effect promptly. Choice B, Tachycardia, is incorrect as sotalol is more likely to cause bradycardia. Choice C, Headache, and Choice D, Hyperglycemia, are unrelated side effects of sotalol and are not commonly associated with this medication.

5. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: When a client is prescribed linagliptin, it is crucial to educate them to report any signs of pancreatitis to their healthcare provider. Linagliptin can lead to pancreatitis, making it essential for clients to be vigilant for symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Timely reporting of these symptoms can aid in early intervention and management of pancreatitis.

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