Nursing Elites

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Increased risk of bleeding
• B. Decreased risk of bleeding
• C. Increased risk of infection
• D. Decreased risk of infection

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

2. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

• A. Explain the importance of obtaining a blood sample promptly to test for medication toxicity
• B. Consult with the healthcare provider regarding the necessity of an opioid analgesic for pain relief
• C. Recommend the client to discontinue the medication until contacting the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client on the use of acetaminophen every 4-6 hours as needed for headaches

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

3. A client who received a prescription for cyclosporine ophthalmic emulsion for dry eyes asks the practical nurse (PN) if it is safe to continue using artificial tears. What information should the PN provide?

• A. Avoid using artificial tears because they decrease the efficacy of cyclosporine.
• B. Discontinue the use of both products if transient blurring occurs after administration.
• C. Allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears.
• D. Discontinue the use of cyclosporine and artificial tears when tear production reaches a normal level.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is to allow a 15-minute interval between the administration of cyclosporine and artificial tears. Cyclosporine, an ophthalmic emulsion that increases tear production, can be used in conjunction with artificial tears as long as the products are administered 15 minutes apart. This interval helps to prevent any potential interactions between the two products and ensures optimal effectiveness of cyclosporine for treating dry eyes.

4. A client with severe rheumatoid arthritis is prescribed methotrexate. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential adverse effect?

• A. Bone marrow suppression
• B. Increased risk of infection
• C. Liver toxicity
• D. Kidney stones

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Bone marrow suppression. Methotrexate, commonly used in rheumatoid arthritis, can lead to bone marrow suppression, reducing the production of blood cells and increasing the risk of infection. Monitoring for signs of anemia, leukopenia, and thrombocytopenia is crucial to detect bone marrow suppression early and prevent complications. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because while methotrexate can increase the risk of infection, liver toxicity, and kidney issues, the primary concern and most significant adverse effect to monitor for is bone marrow suppression due to its impact on blood cell production.

5. How should the healthcare provider schedule the administering of propylthiouracil (PTU)?

• A. Offer both drugs together with a meal
• B. Give parental dose once every 24 hours
• C. Schedule both medications at bedtime
• D. Administer iodine one hour before PTU

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering iodine one hour before PTU is crucial to ensure proper absorption and effectiveness of PTU. This timing helps optimize the therapeutic benefits of PTU by allowing it to be absorbed efficiently without interference from iodine, ultimately leading to better treatment outcomes for the patient. Choices A, B, and C are incorrect because offering both drugs together with a meal, giving parental dose once every 24 hours, and scheduling both medications at bedtime do not address the specific timing requirement of administering iodine before PTU for optimal absorption.

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