a client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin the nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect
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Nursing Elites

HESI LPN

HESI Practice Test Pharmacology

1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.

2. A client with a diagnosis of schizophrenia is prescribed quetiapine. The nurse should monitor the client for which potential side effect?

Correct answer: A

Rationale: Quetiapine is known to cause weight gain as a common side effect. Monitoring the client's weight is crucial to identify any significant changes that may occur due to the medication.

3. A patient with irritable bowel syndrome starts a new prescription for dicyclomine, an anticholinergic medication. The client reports the onset of sensitivity to light and a dry mouth. How should the nurse respond?

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct response is to provide instructions on managing these side effects. Sensitivity to light and dry mouth are common side effects of anticholinergic medications like dicyclomine. It is essential for the nurse to educate the patient on strategies to cope with these side effects, such as staying hydrated to address dry mouth and wearing sunglasses to reduce sensitivity to light. Option A is not the priority as the side effects are expected with this medication and do not necessarily indicate incorrect use. Option C is not immediately necessary as the side effects are common and can be managed without a healthcare provider evaluation. Option D is not recommended unless advised by the healthcare provider as abruptly stopping the medication can lead to worsening symptoms or withdrawal effects.

4. The healthcare provider has administered albuterol as an inhaled medication. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for which possible adverse reaction?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Albuterol is a bronchodilator in the adrenergic category. Its actions and adverse effects are similar to adrenaline or epinephrine. The healthcare provider should monitor the client for tachycardia, which is a common adverse effect of albuterol due to its stimulant effect on beta-2 receptors. Enuresis, or night bed-wetting, is not an adverse effect associated with albuterol. Additionally, the client should be monitored for anxiety as a potential adverse effect, not lethargy or depression, which are not typically associated with albuterol administration.

5. During a home visit, a client with a history of angina reports frequent headaches. The client recently started a new prescription for diltiazem, a calcium channel blocker. What action should the nurse take?

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take is to instruct the client to use acetaminophen for headaches. Acetaminophen is a suitable and safer option for managing headaches associated with calcium channel blockers like diltiazem. It is essential to avoid medications that can interact negatively with diltiazem, such as opioid analgesics. Discontinuing the medication abruptly without consulting the healthcare provider is not recommended. Monitoring for medication toxicity through blood samples is not typically indicated for managing headaches in this scenario.

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