HESI LPN
HESI Practice Test Pharmacology
1. A client with a history of deep vein thrombosis is prescribed enoxaparin. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Increased risk of bleeding
- B. Decreased risk of bleeding
- C. Increased risk of infection
- D. Decreased risk of infection
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Enoxaparin is an anticoagulant that works by preventing blood clots. One of the potential adverse effects of enoxaparin is an increased risk of bleeding due to its anticoagulant properties. Therefore, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of bleeding, such as easy bruising, petechiae, or blood in stool or urine, to ensure timely intervention and prevent complications.
2. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed linagliptin. Which instruction should the nurse include in the client's teaching plan?
- A. Report any signs of pancreatitis to the healthcare provider.
- B. Take this medication with meals.
- C. Avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. Report any signs of heart failure to the healthcare provider.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: When a client is prescribed linagliptin, it is crucial to educate them to report any signs of pancreatitis to their healthcare provider. Linagliptin can lead to pancreatitis, making it essential for clients to be vigilant for symptoms such as severe abdominal pain, nausea, and vomiting. Timely reporting of these symptoms can aid in early intervention and management of pancreatitis.
3. A client with a history of atrial fibrillation is prescribed verapamil. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?
- A. Constipation
- B. Diarrhea
- C. Headache
- D. Hypotension
Correct answer: A
Rationale: Verapamil, a calcium channel blocker, can commonly cause constipation due to its effects on smooth muscle relaxation in the gastrointestinal tract. Therefore, monitoring for constipation is important when a client is prescribed verapamil.
4. A client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide. The nurse should monitor for which potential adverse effect?
- A. Hypoglycemia
- B. Weight gain
- C. Nausea
- D. Hyperglycemia
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct potential adverse effect to monitor for when a client with diabetes mellitus type 2 is prescribed glyburide is hypoglycemia. Glyburide can lead to hypoglycemia, particularly in individuals who do not eat regularly, by stimulating the release of insulin from the pancreas, which can lower blood sugar levels. It is crucial for the nurse to monitor for signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia, such as confusion, sweating, and palpitations, to prevent complications and provide timely interventions.
5. A client with severe depression is prescribed sertraline. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?
- A. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
- B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
- C. I should avoid alcohol while taking this medication.
- D. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Clients should not stop taking sertraline abruptly once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is important to complete the full course of treatment as prescribed to prevent a relapse of symptoms. Stopping the medication suddenly can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may worsen the condition. Choice B is correct because sertraline may take 1 to 4 weeks to show noticeable improvement in symptoms. Choice C is correct as alcohol should be avoided while taking sertraline due to the increased risk of side effects. Choice D is also correct as taking sertraline in the morning with food can help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.
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