Nursing Elites

1. A client who is obtunded arrives in the emergency center with a suspected drug overdose. Intravenous naloxone is given, but within a short period, the client's level of consciousness deteriorates. What action should the nurse take first?

• A. Initiate a second intravenous access site
• B. Prepare to initiate cardiopulmonary resuscitation
• C. Determine the results of the drug toxicity screen
• D. Administer an additional dose of naloxone

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Administering an additional dose of naloxone should be the first action taken by the nurse in this scenario. Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. If the client's level of consciousness deteriorates after the initial dose, administering another dose can help further reverse the overdose effects and improve the client's condition. Once the additional naloxone dose is given, the nurse can then proceed to assess the client's response and consider other interventions as needed.

2. A client with a diagnosis of depression is prescribed fluoxetine. Which statement by the client indicates the need for further teaching?

• A. I should take this medication in the morning with food.
• B. It may take 1 to 4 weeks to notice improvement in symptoms.
• C. I can stop taking this medication once I feel better.
• D. This medication might make me feel drowsy.

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C. Clients prescribed fluoxetine should not stop taking the medication once they feel better without consulting their healthcare provider. It is essential to complete the full course of treatment as directed by the healthcare provider to prevent relapse or potential worsening of symptoms. Abruptly stopping fluoxetine can lead to withdrawal symptoms and may not effectively manage the condition. Therefore, it is crucial for clients to follow the healthcare provider's guidance regarding the duration of treatment with fluoxetine.

3. The client is receiving vancomycin, and the nurse plans to draw blood for a peak and trough to determine... the best timing for these levels?

• A. Midway through administration of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• B. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next
• C. Two hours after completion of the IV dose and one hour before the next
• D. Immediately after completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before

Correct answer: B

Rationale: To accurately determine peak and trough levels of vancomycin, blood should be drawn two hours after the completion of the IV dose and 30 minutes before the next dose. This timing allows for appropriate assessment of the drug levels in the body, ensuring accurate monitoring of therapeutic and toxic concentrations. Choice A is incorrect as drawing blood midway through administration does not provide an accurate peak level. Choice C is incorrect as drawing blood one hour before the next dose does not represent the trough level. Choice D is incorrect because drawing blood immediately after completion of the IV dose does not allow enough time for the drug to reach peak levels.

4. A client has been prescribed losartan. Which change in data indicates to the practical nurse (PN) that the desired effect of this medication has been achieved?

• A. Dependent edema reduced from +3 to +1.
• B. Serum HDL increased from 35 to 55 mg/dL.
• C. Pulse rate reduced from 150 to 90 beats/min.
• D. Blood pressure reduced from 160/90 to 130/80 mm Hg.

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Losartan is prescribed for the treatment of hypertension. The desired effect of losartan is to reduce blood pressure. Therefore, a reduction in blood pressure from 160/90 to 130/80 mm Hg indicates that the desired effect of the medication has been achieved. Choices A, B, and C are not specific effects of losartan and do not directly relate to the expected outcomes of this medication. Dependent edema, serum HDL levels, and pulse rate are not typically influenced by losartan, making choices A, B, and C incorrect.

5. A client with epilepsy is prescribed lamotrigine. The nurse should monitor for which potential side effect?

• A. Drowsiness
• B. Nausea and vomiting
• C. Skin rash
• D. Dizziness

Correct answer: C

Rationale: When a client is prescribed lamotrigine, the nurse should closely monitor for the potential side effect of skin rash. Lamotrigine is known to cause skin rashes, which can be mild or severe, indicating a serious adverse reaction like Stevens-Johnson syndrome. Monitoring for skin rash is crucial to detect any signs of severe allergic reactions early and prevent further complications. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect as drowsiness, nausea and vomiting, and dizziness are not typically associated with lamotrigine use. While dizziness can be a side effect of some antiepileptic medications, it is not a common side effect of lamotrigine.

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