Nursing Elites

1. What are the requirements and qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor?

• A. BSN, RN
• B. at least 5 years of experience in public health
• C. Master's in public health
• D. all of the above

Correct answer: D

Rationale: To become a regional nurse supervisor, one must possess a BSN and RN credentials to ensure clinical competency. Additionally, a minimum of 5 years of experience in public health is required to demonstrate a solid understanding of the field. Lastly, holding a Master's degree in public health is essential for leadership and decision-making roles. Therefore, all the choices (BSN, RN; at least 5 years of experience in public health; Master's in public health) are necessary qualifications for a regional nurse supervisor.

2. In which of the following settings would a community health nurse be less likely to be involved?

• A. neighborhood clinic, community clinic, or senior center
• B. physician's office with a focus on individual client care
• C. home-based care
• D. neighborhood planning board

Correct answer: B

Rationale: Community health nurses are less likely to be involved in a physician's office with a focus on individual client care because their role primarily revolves around promoting and maintaining the health of populations and communities rather than providing direct care to individual clients. Options A, C, and D are more aligned with the community health nurse's role as they involve working in community-based settings, providing home-based care, and participating in community planning and advocacy.

3. With an alert of an internal disaster and the need for beds, the charge nurse is asked to list clients who are potential discharges within the next hour. Which client should the charge nurse select?

• A. An elderly client who has had type 2 diabetes for over 20 years, admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis 24 hours ago
• B. An adolescent admitted the prior night with Tylenol intoxication
• C. A middle-aged client with an internal automatic defibrillator and complaints of 'passing out at unknown times' admitted yesterday
• D. A school-age child diagnosed with suspected bacterial meningitis and was admitted at the change of shifts

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A because a client with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) that is being well-managed and has shown improvement within 24 hours is more stable and can be considered for discharge sooner than those with more acute or unstable conditions. Choice B is incorrect as Tylenol intoxication may require further monitoring and intervention. Choice C is incorrect as a client with an automatic defibrillator and episodes of passing out needs careful evaluation and monitoring. Choice D is incorrect as suspected bacterial meningitis is a serious condition that typically requires a longer hospital stay for treatment and observation.

4. To prevent keratitis in an unconscious client, where should the nurse apply moisturizing ointment?

• A. Finger and toenail quicks
• B. Eyes
• C. Perianal area
• D. External ear canals

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B: Eyes. Applying moisturizing ointment to the eyes helps prevent keratitis, a condition that can occur due to inadequate blinking in unconscious clients, leading to corneal dryness and potential damage. Choices A, C, and D are incorrect as moisturizing ointment should not be applied to finger and toenail quicks, perianal area, or external ear canals to prevent keratitis.

5. A client with peptic ulcer disease is receiving ranitidine (Zantac). The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following side effects?

• A. Hypertension
• B. Constipation
• C. Diarrhea
• D. Hypotension

Correct answer: C

Rationale: The correct answer is C: Diarrhea. Ranitidine, which is used to treat peptic ulcer disease, can lead to gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea. Choices A, B, and D are incorrect. Hypertension and hypotension are not common side effects of ranitidine. Constipation is also not a typical side effect associated with ranitidine use.

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