Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the intensive care unit with diabetes insipidus due to a pituitary gland tumor. Which potential complication should the nurse monitor closely?

• A. Hypokalemia
• B. Ketonuria
• C. Peripheral edema
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Hypokalemia. In diabetes insipidus, there is excessive urination leading to fluid loss, which can result in electrolyte imbalances such as hypokalemia. Monitoring potassium levels is crucial to prevent complications like cardiac arrhythmias. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect. Ketonuria is typically seen in diabetic ketoacidosis, peripheral edema is more commonly associated with conditions like heart failure or kidney disease, and elevated blood pressure is not a direct complication of diabetes insipidus related to a pituitary gland tumor.

2. When assessing a mildly obese 35-year-old female client, the nurse is unable to locate the gallbladder when palpating below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle. What is the most likely explanation for the failure to locate the gallbladder by palpation?

• A. The client is too obese.
• B. Palpating in the wrong location.
• C. The gallbladder is normal.
• D. Deeper palpation technique is needed.

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Obesity can make it difficult to palpate the gallbladder due to increased abdominal tissue, making it challenging to locate specific structures. Choice B is incorrect because the nurse is palpating in the correct location below the liver margin at the lateral border of the rectus abdominal muscle, where the gallbladder is typically located. Choice C is incorrect as the inability to palpate the gallbladder does not necessarily indicate abnormality; it may be due to anatomical variations or technical challenges. Choice D is incorrect as the issue lies more with the difficulty posed by excess adipose tissue rather than the need for deeper palpation techniques.

3. An IV antibiotic is prescribed for a client with a postoperative infection. The medication is to be administered in 4 divided doses. What schedule is best for administering this prescription?

• A. 1000, 1600, 2200, 0400
• B. Give in equally divided doses during waking hours
• C. Administer with meals and a bedtime snack
• D. 0800, 1200, 1600, 2000

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The best schedule for administering the IV antibiotic in 4 divided doses is 0800, 1200, 1600, and 2000. This timing allows for equal spacing between doses, ensuring consistent therapeutic levels of the medication in the client's system. Choice A provides doses too close together, increasing the risk of medication errors and potential toxicity. Choice B's suggestion of giving doses during waking hours is vague and lacks specific timing, which may result in irregular dosing intervals. Choice C, administering with meals and a bedtime snack, is unrelated to the timing of the antibiotic doses and does not optimize the drug's effectiveness.

4. The parents of a 6-year-old recently diagnosed with asthma should be taught that the symptom of acute episodes of asthma is due to which physiological response?

• A. Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm
• B. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction
• C. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation
• D. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Inflammation of the mucous membrane & bronchospasm. Acute asthma episodes are primarily caused by inflammation of the airways and bronchospasm, which lead to airway obstruction. Increased mucus production and bronchoconstriction (Choice B) are part of the physiological responses in asthma but do not directly cause acute episodes. Allergic reactions and hyperventilation (Choice C) are related to asthma triggers and responses but are not the direct causes of acute episodes. Airway narrowing and decreased lung capacity (Choice D) are consequences of inflammation and bronchospasm but do not explain the physiological response leading to acute asthma episodes.

5. What action should the nurse implement for a female client with cancer who has a good appetite but experiences nausea whenever she smells food cooking?

• A. Encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside
• B. Advise the client to replace cooked foods with a variety of different nutritional supplements
• C. Assess the client’s mucus membranes and report the findings to the healthcare provider
• D. Instruct the client to take an antiemetic before every meal to prevent excessive vomiting

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement is to encourage family members to cook meals outdoors and bring the cooked food inside. This strategy can help reduce the smell of cooking food and potentially alleviate the client's nausea triggered by food smells. Assessing the client's mucus membranes (choice C) is not directly related to the client's symptom of nausea triggered by food smells. Instructing the client to take an antiemetic before every meal (choice D) may not address the root cause of the issue, which is the smell of cooking food. Advising the client to replace cooked foods with nutritional supplements (choice B) does not address the immediate problem of food odors triggering nausea.

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