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1. While eating at a restaurant, a gravid woman begins to choke and is unable to speak. What action should the nurse who witnesses the event take?
- A. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt
- B. The Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts
- C. The Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts
- D. Call 911 immediately then begin cardiopulmonary resuscitation
Correct answer: C
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to take when a pregnant woman is choking and unable to speak is to perform the Heimlich maneuver using subdiaphragmatic thrusts. This technique is recommended for a pregnant woman to prevent harm to the fetus. Option A, cardiopulmonary resuscitation with uterine tilt, is not indicated for a choking episode. Option B, the Heimlich maneuver using chest thrusts, can potentially harm the gravid uterus. Option D, calling 911 immediately before providing assistance, can lead to a delay in addressing the immediate choking emergency.
2. The nurse is assigned to care for four surgical clients. After receiving report, which client should the nurse see first?
- A. An older client receiving packed RBCs on the third day postoperatively for colon resection
- B. An older client with continuous bladder irrigation who is 2 days postoperatively for bladder surgery
- C. An adult one day postoperatively from laparoscopic cholecystectomy requesting pain medication
- D. An adult in Buck’s traction, scheduled for hip arthroplasty within the next 12 hours
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B because the client with continuous bladder irrigation post-bladder surgery is at risk for complications like infection or bleeding. This client requires immediate attention to assess for any signs of complications such as urinary retention, hemorrhage, or infection. Choices A, C, and D have less urgent needs compared to a client with continuous bladder irrigation, which requires priority assessment.
3. The nurse implements a tertiary prevention program for type 2 diabetes in a rural health clinic. Which outcome indicates that the program was effective?
- A. Clients who developed disease complications promptly received rehabilitation
- B. More than 50% of at-risk clients were diagnosed early in their disease process
- C. Only 30% of clients did not attend self-management education sessions
- D. Average client scores improved on a specific risk factor knowledge test
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because in tertiary prevention, the focus is on managing complications and providing rehabilitation. Choice B is more aligned with primary prevention as it focuses on early diagnosis. Choice C's attendance in education sessions is not a direct indicator of managing complications. Choice D's improvement in knowledge does not directly measure the program's effectiveness in managing complications.
4. A 60-year-old male with type 2 diabetes mellitus tells the nurse that he is going to join a gym and start working out. Which information is most important for the nurse to obtain?
- A. Recent serum cholesterol levels
- B. Presence of calf pain during exercise
- C. Average weight gain or loss in the last year
- D. Exercise tolerance test with EKG results
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The most important information for the nurse to obtain in this scenario is the presence of calf pain during exercise. Calf pain during exercise could indicate peripheral vascular issues, such as peripheral artery disease, which is crucial to address before starting an exercise program. High cholesterol levels (choice A) may be important but are not as immediately relevant as assessing for peripheral vascular issues. Average weight gain or loss (choice C) may provide some insight into the patient's overall health status but is not as critical as assessing for potential vascular complications. An exercise tolerance test with EKG results (choice D) may be valuable in assessing cardiovascular fitness but is not as crucial as evaluating for peripheral vascular issues given the patient's symptoms.
5. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?
- A. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury
- B. Confusion immediately following the injury
- C. Headache that resolves quickly
- D. Brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Epidural hematoma often presents with a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then a rapid decline in consciousness. Therefore, altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after the injury is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because confusion immediately following the injury, headache that resolves quickly, and brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval are not specific signs of epidural hematoma.
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