Nursing Elites

1. After undergoing an uncomplicated gastric bypass surgery, a client is experiencing difficulty managing their diet. What dietary instruction is most important for the nurse to explain to the client?

• A. Chew food slowly and thoroughly before attempting to swallow
• B. Plan volume-controlled evenly spaced meals throughout the day
• C. Sip fluid slowly with each meal and between meals
• D. Eliminate or reduce intake of fatty and gas-forming foods

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A. Thoroughly chewing food is crucial for clients who have undergone gastric bypass surgery to aid in digestion and prevent complications. Proper chewing helps break down food into smaller particles, making it easier for the digestive system to process. This instruction is essential to prevent issues such as food blockages or inadequate nutrient absorption. Choices B and C are also important for post-gastric bypass clients to maintain proper nutrition and hydration, but they are not as critical as ensuring thorough chewing. Choice D addresses dietary concerns but is not as immediately crucial as ensuring the client chews food properly to support digestion and prevent complications.

2. Four clients arrive on the labor and delivery unit at the same time. Which client should the nurse assess first?

• A. A 38-week primigravida who reports contractions occurring every 10 minutes
• B. A 39-week primigravida with a biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8
• C. A 41-week multigravida who is scheduled for induction of labor today
• D. A 36-week multigravida with a prescription for serial blood pressure

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A biophysical profile score of 5 out of 8 indicates potential fetal distress, necessitating immediate assessment to ensure the well-being of the fetus. The other options, while important, do not suggest an immediate threat to the fetus' health. The 38-week primigravida with contractions every 10 minutes may be in early labor, the 41-week multigravida scheduled for induction can be assessed after addressing the immediate concern, and the 36-week multigravida with serial blood pressure can be assessed after ensuring the client with potential fetal distress is stabilized.

3. The healthcare provider is evaluating a client for potential dehydration. Which assessment finding is most indicative of fluid volume deficit?

• A. Moist mucous membranes
• B. Increased urine output
• C. Decreased skin turgor
• D. Elevated blood pressure

Correct answer: C

Rationale: Corrected Rationale: Decreased skin turgor is a classic sign of dehydration. When someone is dehydrated, the skin loses its elasticity and becomes less turgid. This change is easily assessed by gently pinching and pulling up the skin on the back of the hand or forearm. If the skin remains elevated or tents rather than quickly returning to its normal position, it indicates dehydration. Moist mucous membranes (Choice A) are actually a sign of adequate hydration. Increased urine output (Choice B) can be a sign of dehydration, but decreased skin turgor is a more specific indicator. Elevated blood pressure (Choice D) is not typically associated with fluid volume deficit and may indicate other health issues.

4. The nurse discontinues a continuous IV heparin infusion for a male client on strict bedrest and is now preparing to administer the client's first dose of enoxaparin. Prior to giving this subcutaneous injection, which assessment finding requires additional intervention by the nurse?

• A. Current lab report indicates an Aptt at 1.5 times the client's control
• B. The client states that his right calf is aching and wants pain medication
• C. The spouse is assisting the client who is shaving with an electric razor
• D. Several bruised areas are noted on the client's upper extremities bilaterally

Correct answer: D

Rationale: The correct answer is D. Bruised areas on the client's upper extremities bilaterally indicate an increased risk of bleeding, which requires careful assessment before administering enoxaparin. Bruising suggests potential issues with clotting and hemostasis, making it crucial for the nurse to further evaluate the client's bleeding risk. Choices A, B, and C do not directly relate to the assessment of bleeding risk associated with enoxaparin administration and are therefore incorrect. Choice A provides information about the client's Aptt, which is not directly relevant to assessing bleeding risk for enoxaparin. Choice B addresses pain management, and Choice C involves the client's daily activities with no direct link to the bleeding risk assessment.

5. A client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is receiving a beta-blocker medication. What is the most important outcome for the nurse to monitor?

• A. Heart rate and blood pressure
• B. Blood glucose levels
• C. Respiratory rate
• D. Liver function tests

Correct answer: A

Rationale: The correct answer is A: Heart rate and blood pressure. When a client with a history of myocardial infarction (MI) is on a beta-blocker medication, monitoring heart rate and blood pressure is crucial. Beta-blockers lower heart rate and blood pressure, so monitoring these parameters helps assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent complications like bradycardia or hypotension. Choices B, C, and D are not the most important outcomes to monitor in this scenario. Blood glucose levels are typically monitored in clients with diabetes or when using medications that affect glucose levels. Respiratory rate is important in assessing respiratory function and oxygenation, while liver function tests are more relevant when monitoring the impact of medications on liver health.

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