Nursing Elites

1. A client is admitted to the hospital with a serum sodium level of 128 mEq/L, distended neck veins, and lung crackles. What intervention should the nurse implement?

• A. Increase the intake of salty foods
• B. Administer NaCl supplements
• C. Restrict oral fluid intake
• D. Hold the client's loop diuretic

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In the scenario described, the client presents with signs of fluid overload and hyponatremia. Restricting oral fluid intake is the appropriate intervention to manage fluid overload and correct hyponatremia. Increasing the intake of salty foods (Choice A) and administering NaCl supplements (Choice B) would exacerbate the sodium imbalance. Holding the client's loop diuretic (Choice D) is not directly related to addressing the fluid overload and hyponatremia.

2. A young adult female presents at the emergency center with acute lower abdominal pain. Which assessment finding is most important for the nurse to report to the healthcare provider?

• A. Pain scale rating of 9 on a 0-10 scale
• B. Last menstrual period was 7 weeks ago
• C. Reports white curdy vaginal discharge
• D. History of irritable bowel syndrome (IBS)

Correct answer: B

Rationale: The correct answer is B. A missed menstrual period could indicate a possible pregnancy-related issue, requiring urgent evaluation. Assessing the menstrual history in a female of reproductive age takes precedence in this scenario. Choice A, the pain scale rating, is important but not as urgent as evaluating the menstrual history. Choice C, reporting white curdy vaginal discharge, may suggest a vaginal infection but is not as critical as ruling out a potential pregnancy. Choice D, the history of irritable bowel syndrome, is relevant but not as crucial as determining pregnancy-related issues in this context.

3. The client had gastric bypass surgery yesterday. Which intervention is most important for the nurse to implement during the first 24 postoperative hours?

• A. Insert an indwelling urinary catheter
• B. Monitor for the appearance of an incisional hernia
• C. Instruct the client to eat small frequent meals
• D. Measure hourly urinary output

Correct answer: D

Rationale: Monitoring hourly urinary output is crucial during the first 24 postoperative hours to assess kidney function, fluid balance, and early detection of complications like dehydration or inadequate kidney perfusion. Inserting an indwelling urinary catheter is not routinely necessary after gastric bypass surgery unless there are specific indications. Monitoring for an incisional hernia is important but not the highest priority in the immediate postoperative period. Instructing the client to eat small frequent meals is essential for long-term dietary management after gastric bypass surgery, but not the most critical intervention during the initial 24 hours.

4. An experienced nurse tells the nurse-manager that working with a new graduate is impossible because the new graduate will not listen to suggestions. The new graduate comes to the nurse-manager describing the senior nurse’s attitude as challenging and offensive. What action is best for the nurse manager to take?

• A. Have both nurses meet separately with the staff mental health consultant
• B. Listen actively to both nurses and offer suggestions to solve the dilemma
• C. Ask the senior nurse to examine mentoring strategies used with the new graduate
• D. Ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together

Correct answer: D

Rationale: In this scenario, the best action for the nurse manager to take is to ask the nurses to meet with the nurse-manager to identify ways of working together. This approach promotes open communication, facilitates understanding of both perspectives, and encourages collaborative problem-solving. Option A is not ideal as involving a mental health consultant may be premature for this situation. Option B, although helpful in listening to both parties, does not directly address the need for collaboration. Option C focuses on the senior nurse's mentoring strategies only, rather than addressing the conflict between the two nurses.

5. After assessing an older adult with a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA), the nurse documents the client's right upper arm weakness and slurred speech. When the client complains of a severe headache and nausea, and the neurological assessment remains unchanged, which action should the nurse implement first?

• A. Administer an oral analgesic with antiemetic
• B. Collect blood for coagulation times
• C. Send the client for a computed tomography scan of the brain
• D. Obtain a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury

Correct answer: C

Rationale: In this scenario, the priority action for the nurse is to send the client for a computed tomography (CT) scan of the brain. A CT scan is crucial in assessing acute changes or bleeding that could influence treatment decisions in a suspected cerebrovascular accident (CVA). While addressing symptoms like headache and nausea is important, ruling out acute changes in the brain with a CT scan takes precedence in this situation. Collecting blood for coagulation times may be necessary but is not the initial priority. Obtaining a history of medication use, recent surgery, or injury is also important but not the first action to take when a CVA is suspected.

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