HESI LPN
HESI CAT Exam 2024
1. A young adult woman visits the clinic and learns that she is positive for BRCA1 gene mutation and asks the nurse what to expect next. How should the nurse respond?
- A. Explain that counseling will be provided to give her information about her cancer risk.
- B. Gather additional information about the client’s family history for all types of cancer.
- C. Offer assurance that there are a variety of effective treatments for breast cancer.
- D. Provide information about survival rates for women who have this genetic mutation.
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A because counseling will help the woman understand her risk and options for surveillance or preventive measures. At this point, it is crucial to address the woman's immediate concerns related to the BRCA1 gene mutation. Choice B is incorrect as the focus should be on the woman's individual risk due to the specific gene mutation she carries. Choice C is not the priority as treatment options come after assessing the risk and deciding on surveillance or preventive measures. Choice D is incorrect because discussing survival rates is not the immediate need for someone who has just received information about having a genetic mutation.
2. A 13-year-old girl, diagnosed with diabetes mellitus Type 1 at the age of 9, is admitted to the hospital in diabetic ketoacidosis. Which occurrence is the most likely cause of the ketoacidosis?
- A. Ate an extra peanut butter sandwich before gym class
- B. Incorrectly drew up and administered too much insulin
- C. Was not hungry, so she skipped eating lunch
- D. Has had a cold and ear infection for the past two days
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct answer is B. Incorrect insulin administration is a common cause of diabetic ketoacidosis. Administering too much insulin can lead to uncontrolled hyperglycemia, where the body starts breaking down fat for energy, resulting in the production of ketones. Choices A, C, and D are less likely to directly cause diabetic ketoacidosis. Eating an extra peanut butter sandwich, skipping lunch, or having a cold and ear infection would not directly lead to the metabolic derangements seen in diabetic ketoacidosis.
3. The nurse identifies the presence of clear fluid on the surgical dressing of a client who just returned to the unit following lumbar spinal surgery. What action should the nurse implement immediately?
- A. Change the dressing using a compression bandage
- B. Test fluid on the dressing for glucose
- C. Document the findings in the electronic medical record
- D. Mark drainage area with a pen and continue to monitor
Correct answer: B
Rationale: The correct action for the nurse to implement immediately upon identifying clear fluid on the surgical dressing post-lumbar surgery is to test the fluid for glucose. Clear fluid could indicate cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) leakage, and testing for glucose can help confirm this. Changing the dressing using a compression bandage (Choice A) without further assessment could lead to complications. Documenting the findings (Choice C) is important but not as immediate as confirming the presence of CSF. Marking the drainage area with a pen and monitoring (Choice D) does not address the need for immediate confirmation of CSF leakage.
4. An angry client screams at the emergency department triage nurse, “I’ve been waiting here for two hours! You and the staff are incompetent”. What is the best response for the nurse to make?
- A. The emergency department is very busy at this time.
- B. I’ll let you see the doctor next because you’ve waited so long.
- C. I’m doing the best I can for the sickest clients first.
- D. I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.
Correct answer: D
Rationale: Correct Answer: The best response for the nurse is to choose option D, 'I understand you are frustrated with the wait time.' This response demonstrates empathy and validates the client's feelings, helping to defuse the situation. Choice A is not the best response as it does not directly address the client's emotions or concerns. Choice B is inappropriate as it gives preferential treatment based on the client's behavior. Choice C, while true, does not acknowledge the client's frustration or offer empathy.
5. A young adult who is hit with a baseball bat on the temporal area of the left skull is conscious when admitted to the ED and is transferred to the Neurological Unit to be monitored for signs of closed head injury. Which assessment finding is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma?
- A. Altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after injury
- B. Confusion immediately following the injury
- C. Headache that resolves quickly
- D. Brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct answer is A. Epidural hematoma often presents with a brief loss of consciousness followed by a lucid interval and then a rapid decline in consciousness. Therefore, altered consciousness within the first 24 hours after the injury is indicative of a developing epidural hematoma. Choices B, C, and D are incorrect because confusion immediately following the injury, headache that resolves quickly, and brief loss of consciousness with a lucid interval are not specific signs of epidural hematoma.
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